ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. What are the signs and symptoms of a pulmonary embolism?
- A. Sudden shortness of breath
- B. Chest pain
- C. Cough with blood
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A pulmonary embolism can manifest with sudden shortness of breath, chest pain, and coughing up blood. These symptoms are classic presentations of a pulmonary embolism due to the blockage of blood flow to the lungs. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' Each symptom alone can be seen in various other conditions, but when occurring together, they strongly suggest a pulmonary embolism. Sudden shortness of breath is due to decreased oxygenation, chest pain can result from the strain on the heart, and coughing with blood may indicate damage to the lung tissue. Choosing any single symptom would not encompass the full range of presentations seen in a pulmonary embolism.
2. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
3. While caring for a client with an IV infusion who develops redness and warmth at the IV site, what is the most appropriate intervention?
- A. Elevate the IV site and apply an ice pack
- B. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
- C. Apply a cold compress to the IV site
- D. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention when a client develops redness and warmth at the IV site, indicating phlebitis, is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. This is crucial to prevent further complications. Elevating the IV site and applying an ice pack (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of phlebitis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice B) is not the primary intervention for phlebitis. Applying a cold compress (Choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to discontinue the IV when phlebitis occurs.
4. What are the complications of untreated hypertension?
- A. Heart disease and stroke
- B. Kidney failure and vision loss
- C. Pulmonary embolism and arrhythmias
- D. Blood clots and gastrointestinal bleeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Heart disease and stroke.' Untreated hypertension can lead to various complications, including heart disease and stroke. These are common outcomes of long-term high blood pressure. Choice B, 'Kidney failure and vision loss,' is incorrect as kidney failure and vision loss are more commonly associated with diabetic complications rather than untreated hypertension. Choice C, 'Pulmonary embolism and arrhythmias,' while serious, are not among the primary complications of untreated hypertension. Choice D, 'Blood clots and gastrointestinal bleeding,' are not typical complications of untreated hypertension but can occur due to other conditions such as blood clotting disorders or gastrointestinal diseases.
5. What is the priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively?
- A. Clamp the chest tube for 30 minutes every 4 hours
- B. Check for air leaks and proper functioning of the chest tube
- C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
- D. Encourage frequent coughing to clear secretions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively is to check for air leaks and ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube. This is crucial to prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Clamping the chest tube intermittently can lead to a buildup of pressure in the pleural space and should not be done without a specific medical indication. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing helps with lung expansion but is not the priority over ensuring the chest tube's proper function. Encouraging frequent coughing may increase the risk of dislodging the chest tube or causing complications.
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