Nursing Elites

1. Use the scenario to answer questions 13-18. A patient has come to the OPD with complaints of anaesthesia and paresthesia of the lower limbs. After laboratory investigations, the doctor has diagnosed the patient with Diabetes Mellitus but failed to specify whether it is type 1 or type 2. Onset of Type 1 diabetes is characterized by:

• A. Occurs after pubertal onset in the majority of cases
• B. Occurs when parents are poor
• C. Occurs at an early age
• D. Occurs after childbirth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Type 1 diabetes typically occurs after pubertal onset. This form of diabetes is most commonly diagnosed in individuals under the age of 30, with a peak incidence in the mid-teens to early 20s. Puberty is a period of hormonal changes and growth, which can trigger the onset of type 1 diabetes due to the stress it places on the body's insulin-producing cells.

2. Serwaa, a 26-year-old mother, has brought her daughter to the OPD with signs of lower respiratory tract infection. Which of the following diagnoses is NOT typically associated with lower respiratory tract infections for her daughter?

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Asthma
• C. Bronchiolitis
• D. Coryza

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Coryza, also known as the common cold, is a viral infection that primarily affects the upper respiratory tract and is not typically associated with lower respiratory tract infections. Pneumonia, asthma, and bronchiolitis are conditions that commonly affect the lower respiratory tract, causing symptoms like cough, difficulty breathing, and chest pain.

3. During the 5-minute Apgar assessment of a newborn, you note a heart rate of 130 beats/min, cyanosis in the hands and feet, and rapid respirations. The baby cries when you flick the soles of its feet and resists leg straightening. These findings correspond to an Apgar score of:

• A. 9
• B. 7
• C. 8
• D. 10

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Apgar score is a rapid assessment tool to evaluate the newborn's transition to life outside the womb. The Apgar score is based on five components: heart rate (>100 bpm), respiratory effort (rapid breathing), muscle tone (resisting leg straightening), reflex irritability (crying when feet are flicked), and color (cyanosis to extremities). The described findings match a score of 9, indicating good overall condition and adaptation to extrauterine life.

4. Following the initial steps of resuscitation, a newborn remains apneic and cyanotic. What should you do next?

• A. begin ventilations with a bag-mask device.
• B. gently flick the soles of their feet for up to 60 seconds.
• C. immediately suction their mouth and nose.
• D. start CPR if the heart rate is less than 80 beats/min.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If a newborn remains apneic and cyanotic after the initial resuscitation steps, the next appropriate action is to begin ventilations with a bag-mask device. This helps provide oxygen to the newborn and can be crucial in supporting their respiratory efforts. Option B of flicking the soles of their feet is not recommended in this scenario as the priority is addressing the respiratory distress. Option C of suctioning their mouth and nose is not the immediate next step if the newborn is not spontaneously breathing. Option D of starting CPR based only on the heart rate is not the first-line intervention for an apneic and cyanotic newborn.

5. What should be the drop rate per minute using a drop factor of 20 drops/ml?

• A. 19 drops/min
• B. 23 drops/min
• C. 36 drops/min
• D. 46.7 drops/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drop rate per minute when using a drop factor of 20 drops/ml, you simply divide 60 (minutes) by the drop factor (20 drops/ml), giving you 3. Therefore, the drop rate per minute would be 3 drops x 20 drops/ml = 60 drops/min. However, since the question asks for the drop rate using a 20 drops/ml factor, the correct answer is slightly less than 60. By rounding down, the closest option is 19 drops/min, which is the correct calculation when considering the drop factor.

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