Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary function of the placenta during pregnancy?

• A. Produce insulin
• B. Facilitate gas exchange between mother and fetus
• C. Excrete waste products from the fetus
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary function of the placenta during pregnancy is to facilitate the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the mother and the fetus. This ensures that the fetus receives oxygen and eliminates carbon dioxide, supporting its growth and development. While the placenta also allows for the transfer of nutrients and waste products between the mother and the fetus, its main role is to ensure proper gas exchange. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as the primary role of the placenta is not to produce insulin or excrete waste products from the fetus. Selecting the correct answer, choice B, highlights the crucial role of the placenta in providing oxygen to the fetus and removing carbon dioxide, which are essential for fetal well-being and development.

2. Which of the following hormones is produced by the adrenal medulla and prepares the body for a stressful situation?

• A. Testosterone
• B. Cortisol
• C. Epinephrine (adrenaline)
• D. Growth hormone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Epinephrine (adrenaline). Epinephrine is produced by the adrenal medulla and is responsible for preparing the body for a stressful situation. It increases heart rate, dilates airways, and mobilizes energy stores to help the body respond to a fight-or-flight scenario. Testosterone (Choice A) is a sex hormone produced by the testes in males and in smaller amounts by the ovaries in females, not by the adrenal medulla. Cortisol (Choice B) is a stress hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, not the adrenal medulla. Growth hormone (Choice D) is produced by the pituitary gland and is involved in growth, metabolism, and various bodily functions, not by the adrenal medulla.

3. In physics, what does the term 'terminal velocity' refer to?

• A. Maximum velocity reached by an object in free fall
• B. Velocity when the object is at rest
• C. Instantaneous velocity of an object
• D. Velocity only reached by heavy objects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Terminal velocity in physics refers to the maximum velocity achieved by an object in free fall when the force of gravity equals the force of air resistance. At terminal velocity, the object stops accelerating and maintains a constant speed. This occurs when the opposing forces are balanced, leading to no further increase in speed. Choice B is incorrect as velocity when the object is at rest is zero, not at terminal velocity. Choice C is incorrect as instantaneous velocity refers to the velocity at a specific moment in time, not the maximum speed reached in free fall. Choice D is incorrect because terminal velocity is not exclusive to heavy objects; all objects in free fall can reach terminal velocity under the right conditions.

4. What is the role of RNA interference in silencing genes?

• A. Increases protein production
• B. Promotes gene mutation
• C. Inhibits the expression of specific genes
• D. Repairs damaged DNA

Correct answer: C

Rationale: RNA interference (RNAi) is a biological process that involves the silencing of gene expression by inhibiting the translation of mRNA or by degrading mRNA molecules. This mechanism plays a crucial role in regulating gene expression and can be used to selectively silence specific genes. By interfering with the expression of specific genes, RNAi can downregulate protein production from those genes. Therefore, option C, 'Inhibits the expression of specific genes,' is the correct role of RNA interference in silencing genes. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because RNA interference does not increase protein production, promote gene mutation, or repair damaged DNA; its primary function is to inhibit gene expression by degrading or interfering with mRNA.

5. An uncharged atom has an electron configuration of 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² and a mass number of 14. How many protons does it have?

• A. 14
• B. 6
• C. 8
• D. 12

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The number of protons in an atom is determined by the atomic number, which is equal to the number of protons in the nucleus. The electron configuration given corresponds to carbon (C) with 6 protons. The atomic number of an element is the same as the number of protons in its nucleus, so in this case, the atom has 6 protons. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not correspond to the correct number of protons for an atom with the given electron configuration and mass number. Therefore, option B, 6 protons, is the correct answer.

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