ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. The nurse is planning care for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which intervention should the nurse include to reduce the risk of bleeding?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection.
- B. Limit the client's dietary protein intake.
- C. Administer vitamin K as prescribed.
- D. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering vitamin K as prescribed can help reduce the risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis by promoting clotting factor production. Cirrhosis often leads to impaired liver function, affecting the synthesis of clotting factors. Vitamin K supplementation helps in the production of these essential clotting factors, thus reducing the risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important for overall care but not directly related to reducing the risk of bleeding in cirrhosis. Limiting dietary protein intake (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases of cirrhosis but does not directly address the risk of bleeding. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice D) is beneficial for various aspects of health but does not specifically target the risk of bleeding in cirrhosis.
2. A 56-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has severe joint pain and swelling in her hands. She has a history of peptic ulcer disease five years ago but presently has no GI symptoms. You elect to start her on an NSAID. Which of the following is correct?
- A. Proton-pump inhibitors and H2-blockers are equally effective in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity.
- B. Misoprostol is superior to an H2-blocker in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity.
- C. Sucralfate is not the drug of choice for prophylaxis in this patient.
- D. H. pylori infection can alter the risk for an NSAID-induced ulcer.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of peptic ulcer disease puts her at risk for NSAID-related GI toxicity. Misoprostol and proton-pump inhibitors have shown superiority over H2-blockers in preventing NSAID-related GI toxicity. H. pylori infection can indeed increase the risk of an NSAID-induced ulcer in infected patients who are starting NSAID therapy. Sucralfate has not been proven to be effective in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity. Therefore, the correct choice is B, as misoprostol is the preferred option over an H2-blocker in this context.
3. A patient with severe pain is prescribed morphine sulfate. What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Hypertension
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Increased urine output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is prescribed morphine sulfate, the most critical side effect for the nurse to monitor is respiratory depression. Morphine can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to inadequate ventilation and potentially life-threatening consequences. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status closely is essential to promptly identify and manage any signs of respiratory depression.
4. A 55-year-old man presents with jaundice, pruritus, and dark urine. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of jaundice, pruritus, dark urine, elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase, along with imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct, are characteristic of primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary biliary cirrhosis is an autoimmune liver disease that leads to destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts, causing cholestasis and liver damage. This condition typically presents in middle-aged women but can also affect men, as seen in this case.
5. What is the primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. No need for regular INR monitoring
- B. Lower risk of bleeding
- C. Fewer dietary restrictions
- D. Longer half-life
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is that rivaroxaban does not require regular INR monitoring. This eliminates the need for frequent blood tests to adjust the dosage, making it more convenient for patients to manage their anticoagulant therapy.
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