Nursing Elites

1. Serwaa, a 26-year-old mother, has brought her daughter to the OPD with signs of lower respiratory tract infection. Which of the following diagnoses is NOT typically associated with lower respiratory tract infections for her daughter?

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Asthma
• C. Bronchiolitis
• D. Coryza

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Coryza, also known as the common cold, is a viral infection that primarily affects the upper respiratory tract and is not typically associated with lower respiratory tract infections. Pneumonia, asthma, and bronchiolitis are conditions that commonly affect the lower respiratory tract, causing symptoms like cough, difficulty breathing, and chest pain.

2. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation?

• A. Vertex presentation
• B. Maternal hypertension
• C. Prolapsed umbilical cord
• D. Premature rupture of the amniotic sac

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a breech presentation, where the baby's buttocks or feet present first, there is an increased risk of the umbilical cord slipping down alongside or below the presenting part, leading to a prolapsed umbilical cord. This is a serious complication that can compromise fetal blood flow and oxygenation, necessitating prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation. Vertex presentation is the normal head-first presentation, maternal hypertension is a separate condition that may not be directly related to fetal presentation, and premature rupture of the amniotic sac can happen independently of the baby's presentation.

3. Which artery should you palpate when assessing for a pulse in an unresponsive 6-month-old patient?

• A. Radial
• B. Brachial
• C. Femoral
• D. Carotid

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing for a pulse in an unresponsive 6-month-old patient, the brachial artery is the recommended site for palpation. This is because the brachial artery is easily accessible and provides a reliable indication of the patient's circulatory status in infants.

4. What is the term for a condition where there is a failure of the pituitary to produce sufficient growth hormone to sustain normal growth in children, with 80% of cases being idiopathic? It may present with familial patterns, affecting males more than females.

• A. Cretinism
• B. Growth hormone deficiency
• C. Hypothyroidism
• D. Precocious puberty

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Growth hormone deficiency refers to a condition where there is inadequate production of growth hormone by the pituitary gland. This results in impaired growth in children. While 80% of cases are of unknown cause (idiopathic), some may have familial patterns. It is more common in males than females. Cretinism is a condition of severe hypothyroidism during infancy, not related to growth hormone. Hypothyroidism is a disorder involving low thyroid hormone levels, and precocious puberty is the early onset of puberty. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Growth hormone deficiency.'

5. Use the scenario to answer questions 13-18. A patient has come to the OPD with complaints of anaesthesia and paresthesia of the lower limbs. After laboratory investigations, the doctor has diagnosed the patient with Diabetes Mellitus but failed to specify whether it is type 1 or type 2. Onset of Type 1 diabetes is characterized by:

• A. Occurs after pubertal onset in the majority of cases
• B. Occurs when parents are poor
• C. Occurs at an early age
• D. Occurs after childbirth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Type 1 diabetes typically occurs after pubertal onset. This form of diabetes is most commonly diagnosed in individuals under the age of 30, with a peak incidence in the mid-teens to early 20s. Puberty is a period of hormonal changes and growth, which can trigger the onset of type 1 diabetes due to the stress it places on the body's insulin-producing cells.

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