Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with fluid volume deficit?

• A. Encourage oral fluid intake
• B. Administer IV fluids as ordered
• C. Monitor urine output and check electrolyte levels
• D. Monitor skin turgor and capillary refill

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging oral fluid intake is a crucial nursing intervention in managing a patient with fluid volume deficit. By encouraging oral fluid intake, the patient can increase hydration levels, helping to correct the deficit. Administering IV fluids may be necessary in severe cases or when the patient is unable to tolerate oral intake. Monitoring urine output and checking electrolyte levels are essential aspects of assessing fluid volume status, but they are not direct interventions for correcting fluid volume deficit. Monitoring skin turgor and capillary refill are important assessments for fluid volume status but are not direct management strategies.

2. A charge nurse in a long-term care facility notices an assistive personnel's (AP) repeated failure to provide oral care for clients. Which of the following actions should the charge nurse take?

• A. Ignore the behavior
• B. Reassign the AP
• C. Report the behavior to the manager
• D. Discuss this behavior with the AP while reinforcing expectations

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a charge nurse observes repeated failure in a staff member's performance, it is essential to address the issue directly. Choice D is the correct answer as it involves discussing the behavior with the assistive personnel (AP) while reinforcing expectations. This approach helps in clarifying the expected standards, setting accountability, and providing an opportunity for improvement. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Ignoring the behavior (Choice A) does not address the problem and can lead to continued substandard care. Reassigning the AP (Choice B) may not solve the issue and can potentially transfer the problem to another area. Reporting the behavior to the manager (Choice C) without directly addressing it with the AP first may not promote a constructive approach to resolving the issue.

3. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with a suspected urinary tract infection (UTI)?

• A. Antibiotic Therapy
• B. Hydration
• C. Pain Management
• D. Patient Education

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing and managing a patient with a suspected UTI, the priority is to start antibiotic therapy to treat the infection. Antibiotics are crucial in eliminating the bacteria causing the UTI. While hydration is important to help flush out the bacteria, pain management can help alleviate discomfort but is not the primary treatment. Patient education is vital for prevention and management but is not the immediate intervention required for a suspected UTI.

4. When should a healthcare provider suction a client's tracheostomy?

• A. When the client is hypotensive
• B. When the client is irritable
• C. When the client is flushed
• D. When the client is bradycardic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is required to clear secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Hypotension, flushing, and bradycardia are not direct indicators for suctioning a tracheostomy. Hypotension may indicate a need for fluid resuscitation or other interventions, flushing could be due to various reasons like fever, and bradycardia may require evaluation for cardiac causes.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. HDL level of 90 mg/dL
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Braden scale score of 20

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.

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