a patient with social anxiety disorder is starting cognitive behavioral therapy cbt which statement by the nurse best explains the purpose of this the
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ATI Mental Health Practice A

1. A patient with social anxiety disorder is starting cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which statement by the nurse best explains the purpose of this therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a structured, short-term psychotherapy that aims to help patients identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with anxiety. By understanding and altering these patterns, individuals can learn to manage and alleviate their symptoms effectively. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the purpose of CBT for social anxiety disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because while childhood experiences may be explored, the primary focus of CBT is on thought patterns and behaviors in the present. C is incorrect because although relaxation techniques may be a component of CBT, the primary goal is not just to teach relaxation but to address underlying cognitive and behavioral patterns. D is incorrect because the goal of CBT is not avoidance but rather to confront and manage anxiety-provoking situations.

2. Which symptom is most indicative of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Persistent, intrusive thoughts are a hallmark symptom of obsessive-compulsive disorder. Individuals with OCD experience persistent and unwanted thoughts or obsessions that are intrusive and cause significant distress. These thoughts often lead to repetitive behaviors or compulsions to try to alleviate the anxiety or distress caused by the obsessions. Flashbacks of traumatic events (Choice A), frequent mood swings (Choice C), and auditory hallucinations (Choice D) are not typical symptoms of OCD. Flashbacks are more commonly associated with post-traumatic stress disorder, mood swings can be seen in mood disorders, and auditory hallucinations are more characteristic of psychotic disorders.

3. Which symptom is most indicative of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent nightmares are a hallmark symptom of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Individuals with PTSD often experience intrusive and distressing nightmares related to the traumatic event they have experienced. These nightmares can contribute to sleep disturbances and further exacerbate the individual's overall psychological distress. Persistent low mood, hallucinations, and compulsive behaviors are not specific symptoms of PTSD and are more commonly associated with other mental health conditions such as depression, psychotic disorders, and obsessive-compulsive disorder respectively.

4. What assessment question will provide insight into the effects of a woman’s circadian rhythms on her quality of life?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inquiring about the amount of sleep a woman gets each night is crucial in understanding how her circadian rhythms may be affecting her quality of life. Circadian rhythms play a significant role in regulating sleep-wake cycles, and disruptions in these rhythms can impact overall well-being and quality of life.

5. When orienting a new client to a mental health unit, which of the following statements should the nurse make about the unit’s community meetings?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During community meetings in a mental health unit, clients come together with staff to discuss common problems they may be facing. These meetings are designed to foster a sense of community and provide support and guidance to clients. Choice A is incorrect because community meetings focus on discussions beyond individual treatment plans. Choice B is incorrect as while staff may facilitate the meetings, the focus is on clients' concerns, not a predetermined agenda. Choice D is incorrect as the primary purpose of community meetings is to address shared challenges, not individual mental health issues.

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