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ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. A patient with social anxiety disorder is starting cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which statement by the nurse best explains the purpose of this therapy?
- A. CBT will help you understand and change your thought patterns.
- B. CBT will focus on exploring your childhood experiences.
- C. CBT will teach you relaxation techniques to use in social situations.
- D. CBT will help you avoid situations that cause anxiety.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a structured, short-term psychotherapy that aims to help patients identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with anxiety. By understanding and altering these patterns, individuals can learn to manage and alleviate their symptoms effectively. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the purpose of CBT for social anxiety disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because while childhood experiences may be explored, the primary focus of CBT is on thought patterns and behaviors in the present. C is incorrect because although relaxation techniques may be a component of CBT, the primary goal is not just to teach relaxation but to address underlying cognitive and behavioral patterns. D is incorrect because the goal of CBT is not avoidance but rather to confront and manage anxiety-provoking situations.
2. A patient with a diagnosis of panic disorder is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for when the patient starts this medication?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Gastrointestinal disturbances
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient with panic disorder is prescribed an SSRI, the nurse should monitor for gastrointestinal disturbances as a common side effect. SSRIs can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, or abdominal discomfort, especially at the beginning of treatment. Increased heart rate (Choice A) is not a common side effect of SSRIs; it is more commonly associated with medications like stimulants. Increased appetite (Choice B) is not a typical side effect of SSRIs, as they are more likely to cause weight loss or appetite suppression. Dry mouth (Choice D) is a side effect seen more commonly with medications that have anticholinergic properties, not typically with SSRIs.
3. Ted, a former executive, is now unemployed due to manic episodes at work. He was diagnosed with bipolar I 8 years ago. Ted has a history of IV drug abuse, which resulted in hepatitis C. He is taking his lithium exactly as scheduled, a fact that both Ted’s wife and his blood tests confirm. To reduce Ted’s mania, the psychiatric nurse practitioner recommends:
- A. Clonazepam (Klonopin)
- B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
- C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
- D. Lurasidone (Latuda)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Lurasidone (Latuda) is an atypical antipsychotic medication commonly used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. It can help manage symptoms of mania by stabilizing mood and reducing the intensity of manic episodes. Given Ted's history of bipolar I disorder and the need to address his manic symptoms, Lurasidone (Latuda) is a suitable recommendation by the psychiatric nurse practitioner to aid in managing Ted's condition effectively.
4. A client is discussing free associations as a therapeutic tool with a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of this technique?
- A. “I will write down my dreams as soon as I wake up.”
- B. “I might begin to associate my therapist with important people in my life.”
- C. “I can learn to express myself in a nonaggressive manner.”
- D. “I should say the first thing that comes to my mind.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Free association is a psychoanalytic technique where the client is encouraged to say the first thing that comes to their mind without censoring or filtering. This technique helps uncover unconscious thoughts and emotions. Choice D, “I should say the first thing that comes to my mind,” indicates an understanding of free association as it aligns with the principle of allowing thoughts to flow freely without inhibition. Choices A, B, and C do not reflect an understanding of free association and its purpose, making them incorrect. A, focusing on writing down dreams, does not relate to the immediate expression of thoughts. B, associating the therapist with important people, and C, learning to express oneself nonaggressively, do not capture the essence of free association as a technique for exploring unconscious processes.
5. A client with anxiety disorder is scheduled to begin classical psychoanalysis. Which client statement indicates an understanding of this form of therapy?
- A. “Even if my anxiety improves, I will need to continue this therapy for 6 weeks”
- B. “The therapist will focus on my past relationships during our sessions”
- C. “Psychoanalysis will help me reduce my anxiety by changing my behaviors”
- D. “This therapy will address my conscious feelings about stressful experiences”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In classical psychoanalysis, the therapist delves into the client's past relationships, childhood experiences, and unconscious thoughts to uncover underlying issues contributing to the client's current symptoms. Understanding that the therapist will focus on past relationships aligns with the core principles of classical psychoanalysis. Choice A is incorrect because the duration of classical psychoanalysis is typically longer than 6 weeks. Choice C is incorrect as changing behaviors is more aligned with behavioral therapy than classical psychoanalysis. Choice D is incorrect as classical psychoanalysis primarily focuses on unconscious thoughts rather than conscious feelings about stressful experiences.
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