a patient with social anxiety disorder is starting cognitive behavioral therapy cbt which statement by the nurse best explains the purpose of this the
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Mental Health Practice A

1. A patient with social anxiety disorder is starting cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which statement by the nurse best explains the purpose of this therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a structured, short-term psychotherapy that aims to help patients identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with anxiety. By understanding and altering these patterns, individuals can learn to manage and alleviate their symptoms effectively. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the purpose of CBT for social anxiety disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because while childhood experiences may be explored, the primary focus of CBT is on thought patterns and behaviors in the present. C is incorrect because although relaxation techniques may be a component of CBT, the primary goal is not just to teach relaxation but to address underlying cognitive and behavioral patterns. D is incorrect because the goal of CBT is not avoidance but rather to confront and manage anxiety-provoking situations.

2. When caring for a client with anorexia nervosa, which of the following examples demonstrates the nurse’s use of interpersonal communication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Interpersonal communication involves engaging in a conversation where the nurse asks the client about their personal body image perception. This demonstrates a direct interaction aimed at understanding the client's feelings and thoughts, which is essential in providing holistic care to individuals with anorexia nervosa. Choices A, B, and D do not directly involve the nurse-client interaction that characterizes interpersonal communication. A is more related to team communication, B focuses on the nurse's personal reflection, and D pertains to delivering educational content to a group rather than engaging in a one-on-one conversation with a client.

3. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In managing a patient with OCD, it is crucial to allow them to perform their rituals while gradually limiting the time spent on these rituals. This approach helps the patient feel supported while working towards reducing the compulsive behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because suppressing compulsive behaviors can increase anxiety and distress. Choice C is inappropriate as discussing obsessions is part of therapy. Choice D is not recommended as setting limits on compulsive behaviors is essential for treatment.

4. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) frequently washes their hands. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In managing a patient with OCD who frequently washes their hands, it is important to understand that compulsive behaviors provide temporary relief from anxiety. Allowing the patient to engage in their rituals initially and then gradually setting limits on the time spent can help them gain control over their compulsions. This approach supports the patient without causing undue distress, ultimately assisting in managing OCD symptoms effectively. Choice B is incorrect as discouraging the patient from discussing their obsessions can hinder therapeutic communication and understanding of their condition. Choice C is wrong because encouraging the patient to suppress their compulsive behaviors may increase their anxiety and lead to worsening symptoms. Choice D is also incorrect as avoiding setting limits on the patient's compulsive behaviors does not help the patient in gaining control over their OCD symptoms.

5. When a patient with schizophrenia is taking haloperidol, what is a priority assessment for the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome is crucial for patients taking haloperidol. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious side effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. It presents with symptoms such as high fever, unstable blood pressure, confusion, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction. Early detection and intervention are essential to prevent serious complications.

Similar Questions

Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a 'moody child' with an onset of odd behavior at age 14, which caused Gilbert to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert’s early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:
Which symptom is most commonly associated with social anxiety disorder?
A patient with schizophrenia is being educated about the significance of medication adherence. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding?
While being treated in an inpatient facility, what is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with anorexia nervosa?
In an acute mental health facility, a nurse is communicating with a client. The client states, “I can’t sleep. I stay up all night.” The nurse responds, “You are having difficulty sleeping?” Which of the following therapeutic communication techniques is the nurse demonstrating?

Access More Features

ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses