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ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. A patient with social anxiety disorder is starting cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which statement by the nurse best explains the purpose of this therapy?
- A. CBT will help you understand and change your thought patterns.
- B. CBT will focus on exploring your childhood experiences.
- C. CBT will teach you relaxation techniques to use in social situations.
- D. CBT will help you avoid situations that cause anxiety.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a structured, short-term psychotherapy that aims to help patients identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with anxiety. By understanding and altering these patterns, individuals can learn to manage and alleviate their symptoms effectively. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the purpose of CBT for social anxiety disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because while childhood experiences may be explored, the primary focus of CBT is on thought patterns and behaviors in the present. C is incorrect because although relaxation techniques may be a component of CBT, the primary goal is not just to teach relaxation but to address underlying cognitive and behavioral patterns. D is incorrect because the goal of CBT is not avoidance but rather to confront and manage anxiety-provoking situations.
2. April, a 10-year-old admitted to inpatient pediatric care, has been becoming increasingly agitated and losing control in the day room. Time-out has proven to be ineffective for April to engage in self-reflection. April’s mother mentions using time-out up to 20 times a day. The nurse acknowledges that:
- A. Time-out is a crucial aspect of April’s baseline discipline.
- B. Time-out is no longer an effective intervention.
- C. April finds enjoyment in time-out and misbehaves to seek solitude.
- D. Time-out will have to be replaced with seclusion and restraint.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The scenario describes how April's behavior is not improving with the frequent use of time-out, indicating that it is no longer an effective intervention. When a strategy such as time-out loses its effectiveness due to overuse, it is crucial to explore alternative therapeutic measures to address the underlying issues effectively.
3. Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat panic disorder?
- A. Lithium
- B. Diazepam
- C. Haloperidol
- D. Clozapine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly used to treat panic disorder due to its anxiolytic effects. It helps reduce feelings of anxiety and panic by acting on the central nervous system. Lithium is primarily used for bipolar disorder, while Haloperidol and Clozapine are antipsychotic medications used for conditions like schizophrenia. Therefore, the correct choice for treating panic disorder among the options provided is Diazepam.
4. After Natasha's husband passed away two months ago, she has been overwhelmed with grief. When Natasha is subsequently diagnosed with major depressive disorder, her daughter, Nadia, makes which true statement?
- A. Depression often begins after a major loss. Losing dad was a major loss.
- B. Bereavement and depression are the same problem.
- C. Mourning is pathological and not normal behavior.
- D. Antidepressant medications will not help this type of depression.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is common for major depressive disorder to be triggered by significant life events, such as the sudden loss of a loved one. Therefore, Nadia's statement that 'Depression often begins after a major loss' is correct. Bereavement and major depressive disorder are related but distinct conditions, and while mourning can be intense, it is generally considered a normal response to loss. Antidepressant medications can be beneficial in treating depression, including cases triggered by a significant loss.
5. Ted, a former executive, is now unemployed due to manic episodes at work. He was diagnosed with bipolar I 8 years ago. Ted has a history of IV drug abuse, which resulted in hepatitis C. He is taking his lithium exactly as scheduled, a fact that both Ted’s wife and his blood tests confirm. To reduce Ted’s mania, the psychiatric nurse practitioner recommends:
- A. Clonazepam (Klonopin)
- B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
- C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
- D. Lurasidone (Latuda)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Lurasidone (Latuda) is an atypical antipsychotic medication commonly used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. It can help manage symptoms of mania by stabilizing mood and reducing the intensity of manic episodes. Given Ted's history of bipolar I disorder and the need to address his manic symptoms, Lurasidone (Latuda) is a suitable recommendation by the psychiatric nurse practitioner to aid in managing Ted's condition effectively.
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