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ATI Mental Health Practice A 2023
1. What is the primary goal of eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) when treating a patient with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
- A. To help the patient confront and process traumatic memories
- B. To help the patient change negative thought patterns
- C. To help the patient develop relaxation techniques
- D. To help the patient avoid triggers
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary goal of eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) in treating patients with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is to help them confront and process traumatic memories. EMDR uses bilateral stimulation to facilitate the processing of distressing memories, leading to their desensitization and reprocessing, ultimately reducing PTSD symptoms.
2. A client is discussing free associations as a therapeutic tool with a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of this technique?
- A. “I will write down my dreams as soon as I wake up.”
- B. “I might begin to associate my therapist with important people in my life.”
- C. “I can learn to express myself in a nonaggressive manner.”
- D. “I should say the first thing that comes to my mind.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Free association is a psychoanalytic technique where the client is encouraged to say the first thing that comes to their mind without censoring or filtering. This technique helps uncover unconscious thoughts and emotions. Choice D, “I should say the first thing that comes to my mind,” indicates an understanding of free association as it aligns with the principle of allowing thoughts to flow freely without inhibition. Choices A, B, and C do not reflect an understanding of free association and its purpose, making them incorrect. A, focusing on writing down dreams, does not relate to the immediate expression of thoughts. B, associating the therapist with important people, and C, learning to express oneself nonaggressively, do not capture the essence of free association as a technique for exploring unconscious processes.
3. Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat panic disorder?
- A. Lithium
- B. Diazepam
- C. Haloperidol
- D. Clozapine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly used to treat panic disorder due to its anxiolytic effects. It helps reduce feelings of anxiety and panic by acting on the central nervous system. Lithium is primarily used for bipolar disorder, while Haloperidol and Clozapine are antipsychotic medications used for conditions like schizophrenia. Therefore, the correct choice for treating panic disorder among the options provided is Diazepam.
4. When a patient with schizophrenia is taking haloperidol, what is a priority assessment for the nurse?
- A. Assessing for signs of tardive dyskinesia
- B. Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
- C. Checking for signs of depression
- D. Monitoring for changes in appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome is crucial for patients taking haloperidol. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious side effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. It presents with symptoms such as high fever, unstable blood pressure, confusion, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction. Early detection and intervention are essential to prevent serious complications.
5. A patient with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Encouraging the patient to participate in physical activities.
- B. Providing a stimulating environment to keep the patient engaged.
- C. Allowing the patient to isolate until they feel better.
- D. Encouraging the patient to express their feelings and concerns.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a depressive episode in bipolar disorder, it is essential to encourage patients to express their feelings and concerns. This intervention helps them feel heard, supported, and can aid in managing their emotions effectively.
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