ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023
1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about insulin administration by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Inject insulin into the muscle
- B. Rotate injection sites with each dose
- C. Store insulin at room temperature
- D. Massage the injection site after administration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include is to rotate injection sites with each dose. This practice is essential to prevent tissue damage and ensure proper insulin absorption. Option A is incorrect because insulin should not be injected into the muscle, but rather into the subcutaneous tissue. Option C is incorrect as insulin should be stored in the refrigerator to maintain its effectiveness. Option D is incorrect as massaging the injection site after administration can lead to faster absorption and potentially hypoglycemia.
2. What is the most important action when providing wound care to a client with a pressure ulcer?
- A. Apply a dry, sterile dressing to the wound
- B. Cleanse the wound with normal saline
- C. Perform a wound culture before applying ointment
- D. Cover the wound with a wet-to-dry dressing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Performing a wound culture before applying ointment is crucial when providing wound care to a client with a pressure ulcer. This action helps identify any underlying infections, allowing healthcare providers to select the most appropriate treatment. Options A, B, and D are not as critical as performing a wound culture, as they focus on wound dressing and cleansing rather than identifying potential infections.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
- B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
- C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.
4. A nurse is providing care for a client with dementia who frequently wanders. What is the best strategy to ensure their safety?
- A. Use restraints to prevent wandering
- B. Encourage the client to walk in a monitored area
- C. Place a bed exit alarm system
- D. Ask family members to stay with the client at all times
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best strategy to ensure the safety of a client with dementia who frequently wanders is to place a bed exit alarm system. This system alerts staff when the client attempts to leave the bed, reducing the risk of falls. Choice A, using restraints, is not the best approach as it can lead to complications and is not recommended unless absolutely necessary. Choice B, encouraging the client to walk in a monitored area, may not be effective in preventing wandering as the client may still wander away. Choice D, asking family members to stay with the client at all times, may not be feasible or practical, especially for round-the-clock supervision.
5. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
- B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
- C. Encourage protein-rich foods to improve nutrition
- D. Increase calcium-rich foods in the diet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus and potassium intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. In renal insufficiency, the kidneys struggle to excrete these minerals, leading to their buildup in the blood, which can be harmful. Limiting phosphorus and potassium intake helps prevent further kidney damage and manage the progression of chronic kidney disease. Encouraging protein-rich foods (Choice C) may be counterproductive as excessive protein intake can burden the kidneys. Increasing potassium-rich foods (Choice A) is incorrect as high potassium levels can be detrimental in kidney disease. Increasing calcium-rich foods (Choice D) is not typically a focus in dietary teaching for chronic kidney disease unless there is a specific deficiency or need, as excessive calcium intake can also be harmful to kidney function.
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