ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is teaching a client how to administer enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Inject the medication into the muscle of the thigh
- B. Massage the injection site after administration
- C. Pinch the skin before injecting
- D. Administer the medication at the same time each day
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for administering enoxaparin is to pinch the skin before injecting. Pinching the skin helps create a proper fold for subcutaneous injections like enoxaparin, ensuring proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Choice A is incorrect because enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously, not into the muscle. Injecting it into the muscle can lead to complications. Choice B is incorrect because massaging the injection site after administration can increase the risk of bleeding or bruising due to the anticoagulant properties of enoxaparin. Choice D is incorrect as it is a general instruction and does not specifically relate to the administration of enoxaparin.
2. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Monitor for leg pain, swelling, and redness
- B. Check for calf tenderness and administer anticoagulants
- C. Check for discoloration and monitor oxygen saturation
- D. Check for numbness and provide thrombolytic therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: The correct way to assess a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to monitor for leg pain, swelling, and redness. These are common clinical manifestations of DVT. Choice B is incorrect because administering anticoagulants should be based on a confirmed diagnosis, not just suspicion. Choice C is incorrect because discoloration and oxygen saturation are not primary indicators of DVT. Choice D is incorrect because numbness is not a typical symptom of DVT, and thrombolytic therapy is not the first-line treatment for suspected DVT.
3. A nurse in a provider's office is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who is postoperative following cataract removal from one eye. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Use eye drops to soothe dryness
- B. Avoid rubbing the eye
- C. Sleep on the side of the affected eye
- D. Avoid lying on the affected side
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After cataract surgery, it is essential to avoid lying on the affected side to reduce pressure and promote healing. Sleeping on the side of the affected eye (Choice C) may increase pressure on the eye, leading to complications. While using eye drops to soothe dryness (Choice A) is generally recommended postoperatively, it is not as crucial as avoiding pressure on the eye. Rubbing the eye (Choice B) should be avoided to prevent irritation and potential damage, but it is not as critical as avoiding pressure on the affected eye.
4. Which intervention should be included for a client with heart failure?
- A. Encourage increased fluid intake
- B. Weigh the client daily to monitor fluid balance
- C. Restrict fluid intake during meals
- D. Limit daily activity to prevent fatigue
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Weighing the client daily to monitor fluid balance is crucial for clients with heart failure. This intervention helps assess for fluid retention or depletion, providing valuable information for managing the condition effectively. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice A) is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid overload. Restricting fluid intake during meals (Choice C) may lead to dehydration, which is harmful for clients with heart failure. Limiting daily activity (Choice D) is not recommended as appropriate activity levels should be encouraged for overall well-being, under guidance to prevent excessive fatigue.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is undergoing screening for prostate cancer. The nurse should expect an elevation in which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
- B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
- C. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
- D. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). PSA is a marker specifically used for prostate cancer screening. Elevated levels of PSA can indicate prostate cancer or other prostate-related issues, prompting the need for further diagnostic investigations. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with prostate cancer screening. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is related to pregnancy, alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is associated with liver and germ cell tumors, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is linked to colorectal cancer.
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