Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is supervising a newly licensed colleague who is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection. Which of the following actions by the newly licensed colleague requires intervention?

• A. Selecting a 25-gauge needle
• B. Administering the injection at a 45° angle
• C. Using the ventrogluteal site for the injection
• D. Aspirating for blood return before injecting the medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Administering an intramuscular injection at a 90° angle is essential for proper medication delivery into the muscle tissue. Injecting at a 45° angle is incorrect for intramuscular injections and is typically used for subcutaneous injections where the needle is inserted into the fatty tissue layer beneath the skin. Choice A is correct as selecting a 25-gauge needle is appropriate for an intramuscular injection. Choice C is also correct as the ventrogluteal site is a suitable site for intramuscular injections. Choice D is correct as aspirating for blood return is a necessary step to ensure the needle is not in a blood vessel before injecting the medication.

2. When teaching a client with a new diagnosis of hypertension about medication adherence, which statement should the nurse include?

• A. You can stop taking your medication once your blood pressure is normal.
• B. You should take your medication at the same time every day.
• C. You can double your dose if you miss a dose.
• D. You should take your medication with a high-fat meal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should take your medication at the same time every day.' Taking medication consistently at the same time daily is crucial for maintaining steady blood levels and effectively managing hypertension. It helps ensure that the medication works optimally and provides the best control of blood pressure throughout the day. Choice A is incorrect because stopping medication once blood pressure is normal can lead to a relapse or worsening of hypertension. Choice C is incorrect as doubling the dose without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect as taking medication with a high-fat meal can affect its absorption and efficacy.

3. A client with renal calculi is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.
• B. I should decrease my intake of calcium-rich foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
• D. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because decreasing the intake of calcium-rich foods can help manage and prevent the formation of renal calculi. Excessive calcium intake can contribute to the formation of these stones, so reducing calcium-rich foods is a key dietary modification for individuals with renal calculi. Choice A is incorrect as increasing calcium-rich foods can exacerbate the condition. Choice C is incorrect because increasing sodium-rich foods can lead to more stone formation due to increased calcium excretion. Choice D is incorrect as potassium-rich foods do not directly contribute to the formation of renal calculi.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Decreased creatinine
• C. Increased potassium
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

5. A client has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Obtain a random blood glucose daily.
• B. Change the IV tubing every 72 hours.
• C. Apply a new dressing to the IV site every 24 hours.
• D. Weigh the client weekly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is on total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels daily is crucial to manage and detect complications like hyperglycemia, which can occur due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. Regular blood glucose monitoring helps the healthcare team adjust the TPN infusion rate to maintain optimal glucose levels and prevent adverse events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because changing IV tubing every 72 hours, applying a new dressing to the IV site every 24 hours, and weighing the client weekly are not specific actions directly related to monitoring and managing the effects of TPN, particularly in relation to glucose levels.

Similar Questions