Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hr postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hr following surgery.
• B. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hr.
• C. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hr.
• D. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours is crucial to ensure adequate pain control in the immediate postoperative period. Choice A is incorrect because clear liquids are typically initiated gradually and advanced as tolerated but not specifically at 6 hours post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect as cromolyn nebulizer solution is not indicated for postoperative pain management in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as applying a warm compress may not be appropriate for the operative site after appendicitis surgery and can potentially increase the risk of infection.

2. When a nurse questions a medication prescription as too extreme due to a client's advanced age and unstable status, this action exemplifies which ethical principle?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Non-maleficence

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Non-maleficence. Non-maleficence refers to the ethical principle of avoiding harm. In this scenario, the nurse questions the medication prescription to prevent potential harm to the client, demonstrating the principle of non-maleficence. Choice A, fidelity, pertains to being faithful and keeping promises, which is not the focus of the scenario. Choice B, autonomy, relates to respecting a client's right to make decisions about their care, not the nurse's actions. Choice C, justice, involves fairness and equal treatment, which is not directly applicable to the nurse questioning a medication prescription to prevent harm.

3. What are the early signs of heart failure in a patient?

• A. Shortness of breath and weight gain
• B. Fatigue and chest pain
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Cough and elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shortness of breath and weight gain. Early signs of heart failure typically manifest as shortness of breath due to fluid accumulation in the lungs and weight gain due to fluid retention in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fatigue and chest pain are symptoms commonly associated with heart conditions but are not specific early signs of heart failure. Nausea and vomiting are not typically early signs of heart failure. Cough can be a symptom of heart failure, but it is usually associated with other symptoms like shortness of breath rather than being an isolated early sign. Elevated blood pressure is not an early sign of heart failure; in fact, heart failure is more commonly associated with low blood pressure.

4. What is the most appropriate safety measure for a client using home oxygen?

• A. Store oxygen tanks upright when not in use
• B. Ensure oxygen tanks are kept upright at all times
• C. Allow family members to smoke in designated areas
• D. Keep oxygen equipment at least 10 feet away from heat sources

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure oxygen tanks are kept upright at all times. This is important to prevent the tanks from falling over, which can lead to injuries or tank damage. Choice A is incorrect because oxygen tanks should not be stored in a closet when not in use, as this can lead to poor ventilation and potential hazards. Choice C is incorrect because smoking near oxygen tanks poses a significant fire risk. Choice D is incorrect because while it is important to keep oxygen equipment away from heat sources, ensuring the tanks are kept upright is a more critical safety measure.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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