a nurse is planning care for a school age child who is 4 hr postoperative following perforated appendicitis which of the following actions should the
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1. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hr postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours is crucial to ensure adequate pain control in the immediate postoperative period. Choice A is incorrect because clear liquids are typically initiated gradually and advanced as tolerated but not specifically at 6 hours post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect as cromolyn nebulizer solution is not indicated for postoperative pain management in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as applying a warm compress may not be appropriate for the operative site after appendicitis surgery and can potentially increase the risk of infection.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is taking digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a sign of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, can lead to toxicity manifesting as bradycardia due to its effect on the heart's electrical conduction system. Tachycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Hypotension (choice C) and hyperkalemia (choice D) are not direct signs of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is bradycardia.

3. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

4. A client with IV fluids has developed redness and warmth at the IV site. What is the next step the nurse should take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops redness and warmth at the IV site, it is indicative of phlebitis, which is inflammation of the vein. The next step for the nurse should be to discontinue the IV and notify the healthcare provider. Applying a cold compress may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue. Monitoring for infection is important, but in this case, the presence of redness and warmth suggests phlebitis, not infection. Increasing the IV flow rate can exacerbate the inflammation and should be avoided.

5. What are the key nursing considerations for a patient with a central venous catheter?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maintain sterility during dressing changes. It is crucial to maintain sterility during dressing changes for patients with central venous catheters to prevent infections. Changing the dressing weekly (Choice B) is not frequent enough to prevent infections effectively. Monitoring blood pressure and fluid balance (Choice C) is important for overall patient care but not specific to central venous catheter management. While monitoring the catheter site for infection (Choice D) is important, the key consideration is to prevent infections through proper sterile techniques during dressing changes.

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