a nurse is managing a client with a wound infection what is the priority action
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers

1. A healthcare professional is managing a client with a wound infection. What is the priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a wound culture before applying antibiotics is crucial to identify the specific pathogen causing the infection. This helps in selecting the most effective antibiotics for treatment. Changing the wound dressing, applying a wet-to-dry dressing, or cleansing the wound are important interventions but should follow the assessment and identification of the infecting organism through a wound culture to guide appropriate treatment.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.

3. What are the signs of opioid withdrawal, and how should it be managed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs of opioid withdrawal typically include sweating and nausea. The correct management approach involves administering methadone to alleviate the symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not for managing withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as buprenorphine is typically used to treat opioid addiction, not just withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as sedatives are not the primary treatment for opioid withdrawal.

4. During a home visit to an elderly client with mild dementia, the client's daughter reports that she has one major problem with her mother. She says, 'She sleeps most of the day and is up most of the night. I can't get a decent night's sleep anymore.' Which suggestions should the nurse make to the daughter?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to establish a set routine for rising, hygiene, meals, short rest periods, and bedtime. By creating a structured daily schedule, the client's natural sleep-wake cycle can be regulated, helping to address the issue of daytime sleeping and nighttime wakefulness. Option A, asking for a strong sleep medicine, may not address the underlying cause and can have potential side effects in the elderly. Option C, engaging in exercises when drowsy, may not be suitable for someone with dementia and could disrupt sleep patterns further. Option D, promoting relaxation before bedtime, is helpful but may not be sufficient to address the client's significant sleep issue.

5. A healthcare provider is collecting data from a client who has multiple sclerosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ataxia, which refers to difficulty with coordination, is a common symptom seen in individuals with multiple sclerosis. Nystagmus, the involuntary eye movement, can also occur in multiple sclerosis but is not as common as ataxia. Fatigue is a common symptom in multiple sclerosis, but ataxia is more specific. Fever is not a typical finding associated with multiple sclerosis.

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