a nurse is managing a client with a wound infection what is the priority action
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers

1. A healthcare professional is managing a client with a wound infection. What is the priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a wound culture before applying antibiotics is crucial to identify the specific pathogen causing the infection. This helps in selecting the most effective antibiotics for treatment. Changing the wound dressing, applying a wet-to-dry dressing, or cleansing the wound are important interventions but should follow the assessment and identification of the infecting organism through a wound culture to guide appropriate treatment.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is being discharged home following a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following documents should the nurse plan to include with the discharge report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complications to report. Including potential complications in the discharge report is crucial for ensuring proper follow-up care. This information helps the client and their caregivers to be aware of warning signs that may indicate a worsening condition or the need for immediate medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of discharge planning, but providing a list of potential complications to report takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's safety and well-being post-discharge.

3. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease. What should be emphasized?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to emphasize limiting the intake of potassium and phosphorus for a client with chronic kidney disease. Excessive intake of potassium and phosphorus can lead to complications in kidney disease patients. Choice A is incorrect because increasing protein intake can put additional stress on the kidneys. Choice C is incorrect as excessive fluid intake can worsen kidney function in such clients. Choice D is incorrect as encouraging high-sodium foods can lead to fluid retention and hypertension, which are not beneficial for individuals with chronic kidney disease.

4. Which of the following is an early indication that a tracheostomy client requires suctioning?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is indeed an early sign that a tracheostomy client may require suctioning. When a tracheostomy client becomes irritable, it can indicate that there is a need for suctioning to clear the airway. Bradycardia (choice A) refers to a slow heart rate and is not typically a direct indication for suctioning. Hypotension (choice C) indicates low blood pressure and is not specifically related to the need for suctioning. Decreased respiratory rate (choice D) can be a sign of respiratory distress, but irritability is a more direct and early indication of the need for suctioning in a tracheostomy client.

5. What are the key components of a focused respiratory assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation. A focused respiratory assessment involves inspecting the chest for any abnormalities, palpating to assess tenderness and chest expansion, percussion to evaluate underlying structures, and auscultation to listen to lung sounds. Choice B is incorrect because observation is generally part of inspection, not a separate component. Choice C is incorrect as auscultation should come before percussion in a respiratory assessment. Choice D is incorrect because inspection should precede palpation in a structured assessment.

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