Nursing Elites

1. A client is discussing free associations as a therapeutic tool with a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of this technique?

• A. “I will write down my dreams as soon as I wake up.”
• B. “I might begin to associate my therapist with important people in my life.”
• C. “I can learn to express myself in a nonaggressive manner.”
• D. “I should say the first thing that comes to my mind.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Free association is a psychoanalytic technique where the client is encouraged to say the first thing that comes to their mind without censoring or filtering. This technique helps uncover unconscious thoughts and emotions. Choice D, “I should say the first thing that comes to my mind,” indicates an understanding of free association as it aligns with the principle of allowing thoughts to flow freely without inhibition. Choices A, B, and C do not reflect an understanding of free association and its purpose, making them incorrect. A, focusing on writing down dreams, does not relate to the immediate expression of thoughts. B, associating the therapist with important people, and C, learning to express oneself nonaggressively, do not capture the essence of free association as a technique for exploring unconscious processes.

2. In planning care for the termination phase of a nurse-client relationship, which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Discussing ways to use new behaviors
• B. Practicing new problem-solving skills
• C. Developing goals
• D. Establishing boundaries

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the termination phase of a nurse-client relationship, it is crucial to discuss ways to use new behaviors. This helps the client integrate and apply the skills and strategies they have acquired during the therapeutic process into their daily life. By focusing on the application of new behaviors, the client can maintain progress and continue to grow even after the professional relationship has ended. Practicing new problem-solving skills, developing goals, and establishing boundaries are important aspects of the therapeutic process but are more commonly addressed in earlier phases of the nurse-client relationship. Therefore, the correct action to include in the plan of care during the termination phase is discussing ways to use new behaviors.

3. When assessing a patient with major depressive disorder, which of the following is a common cognitive symptom?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Delusions
• C. Lack of appetite
• D. Negative self-talk

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Negative self-talk is a common cognitive symptom of major depressive disorder. It involves a pattern of negative thoughts and beliefs about oneself, which can significantly impact a patient's self-esteem and overall outlook on life. Hallucinations and delusions are more commonly associated with other mental health conditions like schizophrenia, while lack of appetite is typically considered a physical symptom of depression rather than a cognitive one.

4. A patient with a diagnosis of panic disorder is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for when the patient starts this medication?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Gastrointestinal disturbances
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient with panic disorder is prescribed an SSRI, the nurse should monitor for gastrointestinal disturbances as a common side effect. SSRIs can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, or abdominal discomfort, especially at the beginning of treatment. Increased heart rate (Choice A) is not a common side effect of SSRIs; it is more commonly associated with medications like stimulants. Increased appetite (Choice B) is not a typical side effect of SSRIs, as they are more likely to cause weight loss or appetite suppression. Dry mouth (Choice D) is a side effect seen more commonly with medications that have anticholinergic properties, not typically with SSRIs.

5. What is the primary goal of exposure therapy for a patient with specific phobia?

• A. To eliminate the phobic response completely
• B. To increase the patient's exposure to the feared object
• C. To help the patient confront and reduce their fear gradually
• D. To provide immediate relief from anxiety symptoms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of exposure therapy for a patient with a specific phobia is to help them confront their fear gradually, leading to a reduction in their fear response over time. This gradual exposure helps the individual learn to manage and cope with their phobia, ultimately reducing the intensity of their fear reactions. Choice A is incorrect because while the goal is to reduce the fear response, complete elimination may not always be feasible. Choice B is incorrect as the focus is not solely on increasing exposure but on gradual confrontation. Choice D is incorrect as the therapy aims for long-term reduction rather than immediate relief.

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