ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is postoperative following a rhinoplasty, and a nurse is contributing to the plan of care. Which of the following interventions should the nurse recommend?
- A. Administer humidified oxygen
- B. Restrict fluids
- C. Instruct the client to avoid the Valsalva maneuver
- D. Apply heat packs to the nose
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Instructing the client to avoid the Valsalva maneuver is crucial after rhinoplasty to reduce strain and the risk of bleeding. Administering humidified oxygen may not be directly related to postoperative care for rhinoplasty. Restricting fluids is not typically necessary unless specifically indicated by the healthcare provider. Applying heat packs to the nose is contraindicated after rhinoplasty as it can increase the risk of bleeding and should be avoided.
2. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
3. What are the primary differences between left-sided and right-sided heart failure?
- A. Left-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Right-sided: Systemic edema
- B. Right-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Left-sided: Systemic edema
- C. Left-sided: Systemic edema; Right-sided: Pulmonary congestion
- D. Right-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Left-sided: Heart failure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Left-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Right-sided: Systemic edema." Left-sided heart failure primarily affects the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion, which manifests as symptoms like shortness of breath and cough. On the other hand, right-sided heart failure causes systemic congestion and edema, often presenting as swelling in the legs and abdomen due to fluid retention. Choice B is incorrect because it swaps the features of left-sided and right-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as it also incorrectly switches the characteristics of the two types of heart failure. Choice D is incorrect because it inaccurately associates left-sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion and right-sided heart failure with heart failure itself, which is not a distinguishing feature.
4. A client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy has a urine output of 25 mL/hr. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder.
- B. Absent bowel sounds.
- C. Brown drainage on the surgical dressing.
- D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output below 30 mL/hr indicates a potential complication, such as hypovolemia or renal impairment, and should be reported. Abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder can be common after a cholecystectomy due to referred pain from the diaphragm, whereas absent bowel sounds may be expected temporarily postoperatively. Brown drainage on the surgical dressing is typical in the early postoperative period and may represent old blood or other normal discharge.
5. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is at 40 weeks of gestation and is in active labor. The nurse recognizes late decelerations on the fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Apply oxygen at 10 L/min via face mask
- B. Position the client on their side
- C. Call for a Cesarean delivery
- D. Administer oxytocin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, and the priority nursing action is to improve placental perfusion. Positioning the client on their side, particularly the left side, can enhance blood flow to the placenta and fetus by reducing pressure on the vena cava and increasing cardiac output. Applying oxygen, although helpful, is not the initial priority in this situation. Calling for a Cesarean delivery is not warranted unless other interventions fail to correct the late decelerations. Administering oxytocin can worsen the condition by increasing uterine contractions, exacerbating fetal distress.
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