a nurse is caring for a client who has major fecal incontinence and reports irritation in the perianal area which of the following actions should the
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions

1. A client has major fecal incontinence and reports irritation in the perianal area. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client with major fecal incontinence reports irritation in the perianal area, the nurse's initial action should be to assess the client's perineum to gather more information. By checking the perineum, the nurse can identify the extent and nature of the irritation, allowing for appropriate interventions to be initiated. This assessment is crucial in developing a comprehensive care plan and addressing the client's immediate needs effectively. Applying the nursing process priority-setting framework helps in planning care and prioritizing nursing actions, making assessment the initial step in this scenario. Applying a fecal collection system (choice A) would be premature without assessing the perineal area first. Similarly, applying a barrier cream (choice B) or cleansing and drying the area (choice C) should follow the assessment to ensure appropriate interventions are chosen based on the assessment findings.

2. When admitting a client at risk for falls in a long-term care facility, what should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial step in caring for a client at risk for falls is to conduct a fall-risk assessment. This assessment helps the nurse gather crucial data to identify specific risks and individualized needs, guiding subsequent interventions and preventive measures. By completing a thorough assessment, the nurse can develop a targeted plan of care to mitigate fall risk and ensure the client's safety. Placing a fall-risk identification bracelet, providing nonskid footwear, or setting the bed to the lowest position may be important interventions, but these actions should be based on the findings of the fall-risk assessment, making choice A the priority.

3. A healthcare professional is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Consuming a consistent amount of green leafy vegetables is important for clients taking warfarin as these foods contain vitamin K, which can affect the medication's effectiveness. Maintaining a consistent intake helps stabilize the International Normalized Ratio (INR) levels, which is crucial for monitoring the blood's ability to clot properly while on warfarin therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding grapefruit juice is generally recommended with certain medications due to its interaction with liver enzymes, which is not directly related to warfarin. Taking aspirin along with warfarin can increase the risk of bleeding. Using an electric razor when shaving is a safety precaution for those at risk of bleeding, but it is not directly related to the medication warfarin.

4. When caring for a client with a prescription for wound irrigation, which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with a prescription for wound irrigation, the nurse should cleanse the wound from the center outward. This technique helps prevent the introduction of microorganisms into the wound, reducing the risk of contamination and promoting effective wound healing. By using a circular motion from the cleanest area to the least clean areas, debris and bacteria are moved away from the wound site, decreasing the chances of infection.

5. When assessing a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing DKA, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are a type of deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, commonly observed in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, resulting in Kussmaul respirations. This helps eliminate excess carbon dioxide and reduce the acidity of the blood. Tremors (Choice A) are not typically associated with DKA. Urine retention (Choice B) is not a common finding in DKA; in fact, clients with DKA often have polyuria due to the osmotic diuresis caused by high blood glucose levels. Bradypnea (Choice D), which is abnormally slow breathing rate, is not a characteristic finding in DKA where the respiratory rate is usually increased to compensate for metabolic acidosis.

Similar Questions

A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?
A client has a new diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome, and the nurse is providing dietary management education. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is receiving IV therapy via a peripheral catheter. The healthcare provider should identify that which of the following findings is an indication of infiltration?
Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended to a client with hypertension?
During a teaching session on dietary management for heart failure, a client makes a statement. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Access More Features

ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses