ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A client has major fecal incontinence and reports irritation in the perianal area. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Apply a fecal collection system
- B. Apply a barrier cream
- C. Cleanse and dry the area
- D. Check the client's perineum
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client with major fecal incontinence reports irritation in the perianal area, the nurse's initial action should be to assess the client's perineum to gather more information. By checking the perineum, the nurse can identify the extent and nature of the irritation, allowing for appropriate interventions to be initiated. This assessment is crucial in developing a comprehensive care plan and addressing the client's immediate needs effectively. Applying the nursing process priority-setting framework helps in planning care and prioritizing nursing actions, making assessment the initial step in this scenario. Applying a fecal collection system (choice A) would be premature without assessing the perineal area first. Similarly, applying a barrier cream (choice B) or cleansing and drying the area (choice C) should follow the assessment to ensure appropriate interventions are chosen based on the assessment findings.
2. A healthcare provider is planning to administer medications to a client who is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?
- A. Dissolve each medication in 5 mL of sterile water.
- B. Administer medications through a secondary infusion.
- C. Mix medications with the enteral feeding.
- D. Flush the NG tube with 30 mL of water before and after administering medications.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Flushing the NG tube with water before and after administering medications is essential to prevent clogging of the tube and ensure proper delivery of medication. This practice helps maintain tube patency and decreases the risk of obstruction, which could compromise the client's treatment and nutrition. By flushing the tube, the healthcare provider ensures that the medication is completely delivered and that there are no residual drug particles left in the tube, which could lead to blockages or inconsistent dosing. Therefore, flushing the NG tube is a crucial step in the safe administration of medications to clients receiving enteral feedings. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Dissolving medications in sterile water (Choice A) may not be suitable for all drugs, as some medications may require specific diluents. Administering medications through a secondary infusion (Choice B) is not the standard practice for enteral medication administration. Mixing medications with the enteral feeding (Choice C) can cause interactions between medications and the feeding formula, affecting their absorption and effectiveness.
3. A client with a new diagnosis of anemia is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?
- A. You should increase your intake of foods high in iron.
- B. You should decrease your intake of foods high in calcium.
- C. You should avoid foods that contain gluten.
- D. You should increase your intake of high-fat foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should increase your intake of foods high in iron.' This statement should be included in the teaching because increasing intake of foods high in iron is essential for managing anemia. Iron is a key component for producing hemoglobin, which carries oxygen in the blood. By increasing iron-rich foods like leafy greens, red meat, and fortified cereals, the client can help improve their hemoglobin levels and overall health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing intake of foods high in calcium is not necessary for anemia management; avoiding foods that contain gluten is relevant for individuals with gluten sensitivity or celiac disease, not anemia; and increasing intake of high-fat foods is not recommended for managing anemia.
4. A client with cirrhosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
- B. I should decrease my intake of sodium-rich foods.
- C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In cirrhosis, decreasing the intake of sodium-rich foods is essential to manage fluid retention and symptoms. Excessive sodium intake can worsen fluid accumulation and lead to complications such as ascites. Therefore, advising the client to decrease sodium-rich foods demonstrates an understanding of the dietary management necessary for cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing sodium-rich foods can exacerbate fluid retention and complications in cirrhosis, increasing potassium-rich foods is not the primary focus of dietary management in cirrhosis, and decreasing potassium-rich foods is not a key recommendation for managing cirrhosis-related dietary issues.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of insulin. Which of the following actions should the professional take?
- A. Use a 1-inch needle.
- B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
- C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
- D. Aspirate before injecting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle is appropriate. This angle helps ensure proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Using a 1-inch needle is common for subcutaneous injections to reach the subcutaneous fat layer adequately. Tuberculin syringes are typically used for intradermal injections, not subcutaneous injections. Aspirating before injecting is not necessary for subcutaneous injections as it is primarily used for intramuscular injections to ensure the needle is not in a blood vessel.
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