ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Decreased creatinine
- C. Increased potassium
- D. Increased calcium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has fluid volume excess. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Crackles in the lungs
- D. Dry mucous membranes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Crackles in the lungs are indicative of fluid accumulation in the alveoli, which is a characteristic finding in clients with fluid volume excess. The crackling sound occurs due to the presence of excess fluid in the lungs, impairing normal ventilation and gas exchange. Monitoring for crackles is essential for early detection and management of fluid overload in clients. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in fluid volume excess, hypervolemia leads to increased blood pressure (not hypotension), compensatory tachycardia (not bradycardia), and moist mucous membranes (not dry).
3. A client reports difficulty sleeping at night, which interferes with daily functioning. Which intervention should the nurse suggest to this client?
- A. Avoid beverages containing caffeine
- B. Take a sleep medication regularly at bedtime
- C. Watch television for 30 minutes in bed to relax before falling asleep
- D. Advise the client to take several naps during the day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid beverages containing caffeine. Caffeine is a stimulant that can interfere with sleep, making it difficult for the client to fall asleep at night. Taking sleep medication regularly (choice B) may not address the root cause of the sleep difficulty and can lead to dependency. Watching television in bed (choice C) can actually stimulate the brain and hinder relaxation before sleep. Advising the client to take several naps during the day (choice D) can disrupt the sleep-wake cycle further. Therefore, recommending the avoidance of caffeine-containing beverages is the most appropriate intervention to help the client improve their ability to sleep at night and function better during the day.
4. When assisting a client with bilateral casts on her hands with feeding, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Sit at the bedside when feeding the client
- B. Provide pureed foods
- C. Ensure feedings are provided at room temperature
- D. Offer the client a drink of fluid after every bite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assisting a client with bilateral casts on her hands with feeding, the nurse should sit at the bedside. This action is crucial to provide the client with the nurse's full attention during the feeding process. Sitting at the bedside helps avoid appearing rushed and ensures a safe and comfortable environment for the client. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while they may be relevant in other situations, the priority when assisting a client with bilateral casts on her hands is to ensure proper attention and a comfortable setting during feeding.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Use a 1-inch needle.
- B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
- C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
- D. Aspirate before injecting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, it is important to insert the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper medication delivery into the subcutaneous tissue. This angle helps prevent the medication from being injected too deeply or too superficially, ensuring optimal absorption and therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because the needle length for a subcutaneous injection is typically shorter, around ⅝ to 1 inch. Choice C is incorrect as a tuberculin syringe is not commonly used for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is also incorrect as aspiration is not necessary for subcutaneous injections since there are minimal blood vessels in the subcutaneous tissue.
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