ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A client is receiving ferrous sulfate. Which of the following should be monitored?
- A. Serum potassium levels
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Liver function tests
- D. Blood glucose levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin levels. Ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia by increasing the body's iron stores. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial as it reflects the effectiveness of the treatment in improving the client's anemia. Serum potassium levels (Choice A) are typically not directly affected by ferrous sulfate. Liver function tests (Choice C) and blood glucose levels (Choice D) are not routinely monitored when a client is receiving ferrous sulfate unless there are specific indications or pre-existing conditions that warrant such monitoring.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take ibuprofen for headaches.
- B. I will use an electric razor to shave.
- C. I will avoid eating large amounts of leafy green vegetables.
- D. I will have my blood levels checked regularly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ibuprofen can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, as both medications affect clotting. The client should use alternative pain relievers like acetaminophen. Choice B is correct as using an electric razor is a safe choice to prevent cuts that could lead to bleeding. Choice C is correct as warfarin interacts with vitamin K found in leafy green vegetables. Choice D is correct as regular blood level checks are necessary to monitor the effects and adjust the warfarin dosage if needed.
3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?
- A. Allergy history
- B. Vital signs
- C. Renal function
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.
4. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory values for a client who reports fatigue and cold intolerance. The client has an increased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level and a decreased total T3 and T4 level. The healthcare provider should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Methimazole
- B. Somatropin
- C. Levothyroxine
- D. Propylthiouracil
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client’s symptoms and lab results indicate hypothyroidism, and levothyroxine is the standard treatment to replace the deficient thyroid hormones. Methimazole and propylthiouracil are used to treat hyperthyroidism by decreasing the production of thyroid hormones. Somatropin is a growth hormone used in conditions of growth hormone deficiency, not for hypothyroidism.
5. A nurse is assessing a newborn following a vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Vernix caseosa
- B. Head circumference of 34 cm
- C. Jaundice at 24 hours of age
- D. Respiratory rate of 50/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life is considered pathological and may indicate hemolytic disease or another serious condition, requiring further investigation.
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