Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving ferrous sulfate. Which of the following should be monitored?

• A. Serum potassium levels
• B. Hemoglobin levels
• C. Liver function tests
• D. Blood glucose levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin levels. Ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia by increasing the body's iron stores. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial as it reflects the effectiveness of the treatment in improving the client's anemia. Serum potassium levels (Choice A) are typically not directly affected by ferrous sulfate. Liver function tests (Choice C) and blood glucose levels (Choice D) are not routinely monitored when a client is receiving ferrous sulfate unless there are specific indications or pre-existing conditions that warrant such monitoring.

2. A provider has written a do not resuscitate (DNR) order for a client who is comatose and does not have advance directives. A member of the client’s family says, 'I wonder when the doctor will tell us what’s going on.' Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Request that the provider provide more information to the family.
• B. Refer the family to a support group for grief counseling.
• C. Offer to answer questions that family members have.
• D. Ask the family what the provider has discussed with them.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to ask the family what the provider has discussed with them. This allows the nurse to clarify any misunderstandings and ensures that the family is fully informed before providing further information. Option A is not the best choice because it assumes the need for more information without first understanding what has already been communicated. Option B is premature as the family may not be ready for grief counseling at this stage. Option C, although a good general practice, is not the most appropriate immediate action in this situation where clarifying existing information is crucial.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a positive Kernig’s sign?

• A. After stroking the lateral area of the foot, the client’s toes contract and draw together
• B. After hip flexion, the client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain
• C. The client’s voluntary movement is not coordinated
• D. The client reports pain and stiffness when flexing their neck

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive Kernig’s sign is identified when a client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain after hip flexion. This finding indicates meningeal irritation. Choices A, C, and D do not describe Kernig’s sign. Choice A describes a normal plantar reflex, choice C refers to coordination issues, and choice D describes neck pain and stiffness, which are not specific to Kernig’s sign.

4. A client who is Rh-negative is being taught about Rh (D) immune globulin by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. If my partner is Rh-negative, I will not receive the shot.
• B. I will receive the shot after delivery if my baby is Rh-negative.
• C. I should not receive any immunizations for 3 months after the shot.
• D. This shot may be given after birth to protect future pregnancies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the correct answer because it reflects an understanding of Rh immune globulin administration. Rh immune globulin is given after delivery to prevent sensitization in future pregnancies, particularly if the baby is Rh-positive. Choice A is incorrect because Rh-negative partners do not affect the need for Rh immune globulin. Choice B is incorrect as Rh immune globulin is given if the baby is Rh-positive, not Rh-negative. Choice C is incorrect; there is no requirement to avoid immunizations after receiving Rh immune globulin.

5. A client has been taking propranolol. Which of the following findings indicates a need to withhold the medication?

• A. Sodium 130 mEq/L
• B. Blood pressure 156/90 mm Hg
• C. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Pulse 54/min

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pulse of 54/min indicates bradycardia, which is a side effect of propranolol, a beta-blocker. The medication should be withheld if the client's pulse drops below 60/min. The other findings (sodium levels, blood pressure, and potassium levels) are not directly indicative of the need to withhold propranolol.

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