Nursing Elites

1. A nurse hears a newly licensed nurse discussing a client’s hallucinations in the hallway with another nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Notify the nurse manager
• B. Tell the nurse to stop discussing the behavior
• C. Provide an in-service program about confidentiality
• D. Complete an incident report

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first in this situation is to tell the newly licensed nurse to stop discussing the client's hallucinations with another nurse. Maintaining client confidentiality is a critical aspect of nursing practice. By addressing the behavior immediately, the nurse helps prevent the inappropriate sharing of sensitive information about a client. Choice A is not the first action to take because addressing the behavior directly is more immediate and can prevent further breaches of confidentiality. Choice C is not the priority at this moment as immediate action is required to address the current situation. Choice D, completing an incident report, should come after addressing the immediate issue and ensuring that the inappropriate behavior ceases.

2. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, ‘You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'

• A. A higher dosage
• B. Once-a-week dosing
• C. A lower dosage
• D. A different drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: As the patient transitions to maintenance therapy, the typical approach involves decreasing the dosage to a lower level. This adjustment is made to find the minimum effective dose needed for symptom control while reducing the potential side effects associated with long-term use. Choosing a higher dosage (A) would not align with the goal of maintenance therapy, as it may increase the risk of adverse effects. Once-a-week dosing (B) is not a common adjustment for lithium, which is usually prescribed daily for bipolar disorder. Switching to a different drug (D) is typically considered if the current medication is ineffective or intolerable, not as a routine step in transitioning to maintenance therapy.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional consider for referral to an assertive community treatment (ACT) group?

• A. A client in an acute care mental health facility who has fallen several times while running down the hallway
• B. A client who lives at home and keeps forgetting to come in for a scheduled monthly antipsychotic injection for schizophrenia
• C. A client in a day treatment program who reports increasing anxiety during group therapy
• D. A client in a weekly grief support group who reports still missing a deceased partner who has been dead for 3 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client who lives at home and repeatedly forgets to come in for a scheduled monthly antipsychotic injection for schizophrenia should be considered for referral to an assertive community treatment (ACT) group. ACT teams provide intensive community-based treatment and support for individuals with severe mental illness who may have difficulty adhering to treatment on their own. Choices A, C, and D do not describe individuals with severe mental illness who have difficulty adhering to treatment or need intensive community-based support, which are the typical candidates for referral to an ACT group.

4. Ted, a former executive, is now unemployed due to manic episodes at work. He was diagnosed with bipolar I 8 years ago. Ted has a history of IV drug abuse, which resulted in hepatitis C. He is taking his lithium exactly as scheduled, a fact that both Ted’s wife and his blood tests confirm. To reduce Ted’s mania, the psychiatric nurse practitioner recommends:

• A. Clonazepam (Klonopin)
• B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
• D. Lurasidone (Latuda)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lurasidone (Latuda) is an atypical antipsychotic medication commonly used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. It can help manage symptoms of mania by stabilizing mood and reducing the intensity of manic episodes. Given Ted's history of bipolar I disorder and the need to address his manic symptoms, Lurasidone (Latuda) is a suitable recommendation by the psychiatric nurse practitioner to aid in managing Ted's condition effectively.

5. Which symptom is most indicative of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

• A. Persistent low mood
• B. Frequent nightmares
• C. Hallucinations
• D. Compulsive behaviors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent nightmares are a hallmark symptom of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Individuals with PTSD often experience intrusive and distressing nightmares related to the traumatic event they have experienced. These nightmares can contribute to sleep disturbances and further exacerbate the individual's overall psychological distress. Persistent low mood, hallucinations, and compulsive behaviors are not specific symptoms of PTSD and are more commonly associated with other mental health conditions such as depression, psychotic disorders, and obsessive-compulsive disorder respectively.

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