Nursing Elites

1. Why is a client with ascites scheduled for a paracentesis procedure?

• A. To diagnose liver disease
• B. To relieve abdominal pressure
• C. To assess kidney function
• D. To reduce blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "To relieve abdominal pressure." Paracentesis is performed to drain accumulated fluid in the peritoneal cavity, providing symptomatic relief for clients with ascites. Choice A is incorrect because paracentesis is not a diagnostic procedure for liver disease. Choice C is incorrect as assessing kidney function would typically involve different procedures. Choice D is incorrect as paracentesis does not directly impact blood pressure.

2. A 35-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. She has a history of recurrent mouth ulcers and a perianal fistula. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Ulcerative colitis
• B. Irritable bowel syndrome
• C. Crohn's disease
• D. Diverticulitis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including recurrent mouth ulcers, perianal fistula, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss strongly suggests Crohn's disease. These extra-intestinal manifestations are characteristic of Crohn's disease, a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Ulcerative colitis primarily involves the colon, while irritable bowel syndrome is a functional disorder without the inflammatory component seen in Crohn's disease. Diverticulitis typically presents with localized left lower quadrant pain and is less likely to cause mouth ulcers and perianal fistulas.

3. The patient described in the preceding questions has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?

• A. She is at high risk for reinfection with H. pylori.
• B. A positive serum IgG indicates that eradication of H. pylori was unsuccessful.
• C. The urease breath test is an ideal test to document failure of eradication.
• D. Dyspepsia usually improves with H. pylori eradication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. A positive serum IgG may persist indefinitely and cannot alone determine the failure of eradication. However, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been used to confirm treatment success. The urease breath test is recommended to assess the failure of eradication as it can detect the presence of H. pylori in the stomach, indicating treatment failure if positive.

4. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing joint pain and stiffness. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help relieve the client's symptoms?

• A. Apply cold packs to the affected joints.
• B. Encourage passive range-of-motion exercises.
• C. Administer a muscle relaxant.
• D. Provide a high-calorie diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging passive range-of-motion exercises is the most appropriate intervention to help relieve symptoms of joint pain and stiffness in clients with severe rheumatoid arthritis. These exercises help maintain joint mobility, prevent muscle contractures, and reduce stiffness in the affected joints. Passive range-of-motion exercises can also improve circulation to the joints, promoting healing and reducing pain. Applying cold packs may help with inflammation and pain temporarily, but it does not address the long-term joint mobility issues associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Muscle relaxants are not typically indicated for managing joint pain and stiffness in rheumatoid arthritis. While nutrition is important for overall health, providing a high-calorie diet is not a direct intervention for relieving joint pain and stiffness in this context.

5. Which problem in a client requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Finger paresthesias related to carpal tunnel syndrome.
• B. Increasing sharp pain related to compartment syndrome.
• C. Increasing burning pain related to a Morton's neuroma.
• D. Increasing sharp pain related to plantar fasciitis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increasing sharp pain related to compartment syndrome. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition where increased pressure within a muscle compartment compromises circulation and can lead to tissue damage. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent permanent damage to muscles and nerves, including tissue necrosis and nerve injury. Choices A, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency as compartment syndrome, making them less critical for immediate intervention. Carpal tunnel syndrome, Morton's neuroma, and plantar fasciitis may cause discomfort and functional limitations but are not typically considered emergencies requiring urgent intervention like compartment syndrome.

Similar Questions