Nursing Elites

1. A client is given morphine 6 mg IV push for postoperative pain. Following administration of this drug, the nurse observes the following: pulse 68, respirations 8, BP 100/68, client sleeping quietly. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?

• A. Allow the client to sleep undisturbed
• B. Administer oxygen via facemask or nasal prongs
• C. Administer naloxone (Narcan)
• D. Place epinephrine 1:1,000 at the bedside

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer naloxone (Narcan). The client's vital signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of morphine. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, particularly to restore normal respiratory function. Administering oxygen alone (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of respiratory depression. Allowing the client to sleep undisturbed (Choice A) is inappropriate when signs of respiratory depression are present. Epinephrine (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and is not used to reverse opioid effects.

2. What is the correct way to assess for pitting edema?

• A. Press over the bony area for 5 seconds and release
• B. Press over the skin for 10 seconds and check for discoloration
• C. Press the area and check for the presence of rash
• D. Press the skin and assess for rebound tenderness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to assess for pitting edema is to press over a bony area, typically the tibia, for 5 seconds and then release. This allows for the identification of pitting edema, characterized by an indentation that persists for a few seconds. Choice B is incorrect as pitting edema assessment does not involve checking for discoloration. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of a rash is not indicative of pitting edema. Choice D is incorrect as rebound tenderness is a different assessment used for abdominal conditions, not for pitting edema.

3. A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client with hypertension. What lifestyle change should be emphasized?

• A. Increase intake of sodium-rich foods
• B. Limit intake of high-fat foods
• C. Reduce intake of caffeinated beverages
• D. Eat high-protein foods to lower blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct lifestyle change that should be emphasized for a client with hypertension is to limit the intake of high-fat foods. High-fat foods can contribute to high blood pressure, so reducing their consumption is important in managing hypertension. Choice A is incorrect because increasing intake of sodium-rich foods can worsen hypertension due to their effect on blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as caffeinated beverages can also elevate blood pressure. Choice D is incorrect because while high-protein foods can be beneficial, they do not directly lower blood pressure like reducing high-fat foods would.

4. A nurse is planning to irrigate and dress a clean, granulating wound for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Irrigate the wound with normal saline.
• B. Apply a wet-to-dry gauze dressing.
• C. Use a cotton ball to cleanse the wound.
• D. Administer an analgesic after the dressing change.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to irrigate the wound with normal saline. Normal saline is the preferred solution for wound irrigation as it is isotonic and gentle, promoting healing in granulating wounds. Choice B, applying a wet-to-dry gauze dressing, is not appropriate for clean, granulating wounds as it can cause trauma to the wound bed upon removal. Choice C, using a cotton ball to cleanse the wound, is not ideal as cotton fibers can adhere to the wound and cause contamination. Choice D, administering an analgesic after the dressing change, is important for pain management but is not directly related to irrigating and dressing the wound.

5. What are the complications of untreated deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Pulmonary embolism and stroke
• B. Kidney failure and hypertension
• C. Liver failure and electrolyte imbalance
• D. Fluid overload and bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Untreated DVT can lead to complications such as pulmonary embolism and stroke. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot from the leg travels to the lungs, potentially blocking blood flow and causing respiratory distress. Stroke can occur if a blood clot dislodges from the leg veins, travels to the brain, and obstructs a blood vessel, leading to brain tissue damage. Both of these complications are life-threatening if not managed promptly. The other choices (B, C, D) do not represent common complications of untreated DVT and are therefore incorrect.

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