NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. You are caring for a 78-year-old woman who is wondering why she was diagnosed with glaucoma. Although she has several risk factors, which of these is not one of them?
- A. age
- B. blood pressure reading of 143/89
- C. Mexican-American heritage
- D. 20/80 vision
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Age over 60 and Mexican-American heritage are recognized as risk factors for glaucoma. Elevated blood pressure is also a risk factor due to its potential to cause optic nerve damage. While 20/80 vision indicates poor eyesight, it is not a direct causal factor for glaucoma. Glaucoma is mainly associated with factors like age, ethnicity, and certain medical conditions, rather than a specific visual acuity measurement. Therefore, 20/80 vision is not a risk factor for glaucoma, making it the correct answer. The other choices, such as age, Mexican-American heritage, and elevated blood pressure, are established risk factors for developing glaucoma, as they are associated with an increased likelihood of the condition.
2. The LPN is taking care of a client who is on Phenelzine (Nardil) for depression. Which meal would the nurse encourage the client to avoid?
- A. steak and potatoes
- B. prosciutto and cheese plate
- C. orange juice and toast
- D. carbonated water, shrimp and rice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'prosciutto and cheese plate.' Phenelzine (Nardil) is an MAOI (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor), and clients on these drugs should avoid foods high in tyramine due to the risk of dangerous elevations in blood pressure. Prosciutto and aged cheeses are examples of foods rich in tyramine, so they should be avoided. Choices A, C, and D do not contain high levels of tyramine and are considered safe to consume while on Phenelzine.
3. The LPN has been asked to help a client taking Risperdal with activities of daily living in the morning. Which of these tasks is most likely to be potentially impacted by this medication?
- A. eating breakfast
- B. drinking fluids
- C. getting out of bed to use the bathroom
- D. brushing teeth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'getting out of bed to use the bathroom.' Risperdal can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a drop in blood pressure when changing positions from lying down to standing up. This effect increases the risk of falls, emphasizing the need to assist the client with this task to prevent potential harm. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be directly impacted by the medication, unlike the significant risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with changing positions.
4. A healthcare provider is preparing to perform a Rinne test on a client who complains of hearing loss. In which area does the healthcare provider first place an activated tuning fork?
- A. On the client's teeth
- B. On the client's forehead
- C. On the client's mastoid bone
- D. On the midline of the client's skull
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the Rinne test, the base of an activated tuning fork is held first against the mastoid bone, behind the ear, and then in front of the ear canal (0.5 to 2 inches). When the client no longer perceives the sound behind the ear, the fork is moved in front of the ear canal until the client indicates that the sound can no longer be heard. The client reports whether the sound from the tuning fork is louder behind the ear (on the mastoid bone) or in front of the ear canal. Placing the tuning fork on the teeth (Choice A), forehead (Choice B), or the midline of the skull (Choice D) is not part of the Rinne test procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is to first place the activated tuning fork on the client's mastoid bone.
5. A client is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The client is alert and cooperative but has sustained multiple fractures of the legs. How should the nurse proceed with data collection?
- A. Collect health history information first while initiating emergency measures.
- B. Ask health history questions while performing the examination and initiating emergency measures.
- C. Collect all information requested on the history form, including social support, strengths, and coping patterns.
- D. Perform emergency measures and delay health history questions until after treating the fractures in the operating room.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is alert and cooperative but has sustained multiple fractures, the nurse should prioritize obtaining health history information while performing the examination and initiating emergency measures. This approach allows the nurse to gather essential information without delaying immediate interventions. Option A is incorrect because collecting health history information before addressing the immediate need for treatment may lead to a delay in necessary interventions. Option C is incorrect as it includes non-urgent aspects of data collection that are not a priority in this critical situation. Option D is incorrect because delaying health history questions until after treating the fractures may result in missing crucial information essential for the client's immediate care.
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