NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. You are caring for a 78-year-old woman who is wondering why she was diagnosed with glaucoma. Although she has several risk factors, which of these is not one of them?
- A. age
- B. blood pressure reading of 143/89
- C. Mexican-American heritage
- D. 20/80 vision
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Age over 60 and Mexican-American heritage are recognized as risk factors for glaucoma. Elevated blood pressure is also a risk factor due to its potential to cause optic nerve damage. While 20/80 vision indicates poor eyesight, it is not a direct causal factor for glaucoma. Glaucoma is mainly associated with factors like age, ethnicity, and certain medical conditions, rather than a specific visual acuity measurement. Therefore, 20/80 vision is not a risk factor for glaucoma, making it the correct answer. The other choices, such as age, Mexican-American heritage, and elevated blood pressure, are established risk factors for developing glaucoma, as they are associated with an increased likelihood of the condition.
2. A female client asks a nurse about the advantages of using a female condom. The nurse discusses which advantage with the client?
- A. That it offers protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
- B. That it cannot be used along with a male condom
- C. That it does not have to be discarded after use and can be used several times before a new one must be obtained
- D. That it is 100% effective in preventing pregnancy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that the female condom offers protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Unlike the male condom, the female condom is a loose-fitting tubular polyurethane pouch that is anchored over the labia and cervix. It is used once and then discarded, making choice C incorrect. Female and male condoms should not be used together, so choice B is incorrect. Additionally, no contraceptive method is 100% effective in preventing pregnancy, making choice D incorrect.
3. According to Erikson, which developmental task is a toddler confronting when they develop 'a will of his own' and 'acts as if he can control others'?
- A. Trust versus mistrust
- B. Autonomy versus doubt and shame
- C. Initiative versus guilt
- D. Industry versus inferiority
Correct answer: B
Rationale: According to Erikson, the correct developmental task for a toddler who has developed 'a will of his own' and 'acts as if he can control others' is Autonomy versus doubt and shame. Toddlers at this stage are asserting their wills and realizing they can control others, which is part of developing autonomy. However, they may also experience doubt and shame if their assertiveness is met with disapproval. Trust versus mistrust is the developmental task of the infant, where the main focus is on developing trust in the caregiver. Initiative versus guilt is the developmental task of the preschool-age child, emphasizing the balance between taking initiative and feeling guilty. Industry versus inferiority is the developmental task of the school-age child, focusing on competence and self-esteem.
4. When inspecting the client's eyelids for ptosis, the nurse is checking for which abnormality?
- A. Drooping
- B. Pupil dilation
- C. Pupil constriction
- D. Deviation of ocular movements
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a nurse inspects a client's eyelids for ptosis, they are checking for drooping. Ptosis is a condition characterized by the drooping of the eyelids and can be associated with various disorders such as myasthenia gravis, dysfunction of cranial nerve III, and Bell's palsy. Pupil dilation and constriction are assessed using a flashlight to check pupillary response. Deviation of ocular movements is evaluated by leading the client's eyes through the six cardinal positions of gaze. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct answer is 'Drooping' as it specifically relates to the abnormality associated with ptosis.
5. What causes an older female client's hair to turn gray?
- A. ''A loss of melanin occurs in the normal aging process.''
- B. ''The number of sweat glands and blood vessels decreases in the normal aging process.''
- C. ''The skin on the scalp becomes thin, causing moisture to escape.''
- D. ''It is caused by hereditary factors.''
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A loss of melanin occurs in the normal aging process.' Graying hair in older adults is primarily due to a decrease in the number of melanocytes responsible for providing pigment and hair color. This reduction in melanin production leads to gray hair. The other choices are incorrect. While it is true that the skin becomes thinner with aging and the number of sweat glands and blood vessels decreases, these changes are not directly related to graying hair. Additionally, hereditary factors can influence when graying starts, but they do not cause the graying of hair itself.
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