Nursing Elites

1. You are caring for a 78-year-old woman who is wondering why she was diagnosed with glaucoma. Although she has several risk factors, which of these is not one of them?

• A. age
• B. blood pressure reading of 143/89
• C. Mexican-American heritage
• D. 20/80 vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Age over 60 and Mexican-American heritage are recognized as risk factors for glaucoma. Elevated blood pressure is also a risk factor due to its potential to cause optic nerve damage. While 20/80 vision indicates poor eyesight, it is not a direct causal factor for glaucoma. Glaucoma is mainly associated with factors like age, ethnicity, and certain medical conditions, rather than a specific visual acuity measurement. Therefore, 20/80 vision is not a risk factor for glaucoma, making it the correct answer. The other choices, such as age, Mexican-American heritage, and elevated blood pressure, are established risk factors for developing glaucoma, as they are associated with an increased likelihood of the condition.

2. A client states, "I eat a well-balanced diet. I do not smoke. I exercise regularly, and I have a yearly checkup with my physician. What else can I do to help prevent cancer?"? The nurse should respond with which of the following statements?

• A. Sleep at least 6-8 hours per night.
• B. Practice monthly self-breast examinations.
• C. Reduce stress.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the choices are methods of preventing cancer. Sleep is important in maintaining homeostasis, which helps the body respond to disease. Monthly breast examination can indicate cancer or fibrocystic disease. Stress can have a physiological response that decreases the immune response and increases the risk of disease. Therefore, all the options mentioned are important for cancer prevention, making 'All of the above' the correct response.

3. During the examination of a client's throat, a nurse touches the posterior wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex. The nurse documents normal function of which cranial nerves?

• A. Cranial nerves V and VI
• B. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
• C. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
• D. Cranial nerves IX and X

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). When the nurse touches the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex, it indicates normal function of these nerves. Cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VI (abducens nerve) are not directly responsible for the gag reflex. Cranial nerves XII (hypoglossal nerve) and VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve) are not directly involved in eliciting the gag reflex. Testing cranial nerve I involves smell function, and cranial nerve II is related to eye examinations, making them irrelevant in this scenario.

4. When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?

• A. nausea and vomiting
• B. itching
• C. urinary retention
• D. somnolence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. While urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine, it is not typically assessed within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect and not commonly observed within the first 3 hours. Therefore, itching is the most likely side effect to be observed within the initial 3 hours after administering postpartum epidural morphine.

5. When preparing to listen to a client's breath sounds, what technique should a nurse use?

• A. Ask the client to sit and lean forward slightly, with the arms resting comfortably across the lap.
• B. Listen to the right lung first, then the left lung, moving from top to bottom systematically.
• C. Ask the client to take deep breaths through the mouth.
• D. Use the diaphragm of the stethoscope, holding it firmly against the client's chest.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When preparing to listen to a client's breath sounds, a nurse should ask the client to sit and lean forward slightly, with the arms resting comfortably across the lap. The client should be instructed to breathe through the mouth a little more deeply than usual but to stop if feeling dizzy. The nurse should use the flat diaphragm end-piece of the stethoscope, holding it firmly on the chest wall. By using the diaphragm, the nurse can listen for at least one full respiration in each location, moving from side to side to compare sounds. This technique ensures a systematic and thorough assessment of lung sounds. Choice A is correct as it includes the proper positioning of the client and specifies the use of the diaphragm of the stethoscope. Choice B is incorrect as both lungs should be auscultated systematically, starting from the top and moving down. Choice C is incorrect as deep breaths, not shallow ones, are recommended for an accurate assessment of breath sounds.

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