NCLEX-PN
Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions
1. Which of the following indicates a hazard for a client on oxygen therapy?
- A. A 'No Smoking' sign is on the door.
- B. The client is wearing a synthetic gown.
- C. Electrical equipment is grounded.
- D. Matches are removed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client is wearing a synthetic gown. A synthetic gown might generate sparks of static electricity, which can be a fire hazard, especially in the presence of oxygen. Clients on oxygen therapy should wear cotton gowns to minimize the risk of fire. The other options are not hazards for a client on oxygen therapy: having a 'No Smoking' sign on the door promotes safety by preventing smoking, ensuring electrical equipment is grounded reduces the risk of electrical hazards, and removing matches decreases the risk of fire hazards.
2. What is the appropriate intervention for a client who is restrained?
- A. Remove the restraints and provide skin care every hour.
- B. Document the condition of the client's skin every 3 hours.
- C. Assess the restraint every 30 minutes
- D. Tie the restraint to the side rails.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention when a client is restrained is to assess the restraint every 30 minutes. This ensures the safety and well-being of the client by checking for proper fit, circulation, and signs of distress. Removing restraints and providing skin care every hour may not be necessary and could increase the risk of skin breakdown. Documenting the skin condition every 3 hours is important but not the immediate intervention needed when a client is restrained. Tying the restraint to the side rails is unsafe and can cause harm to the client, as restraints should be secured to the bed frame or an immovable part of the bed.
3. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:
- A. Primary prevention.
- B. Secondary prevention.
- C. Tertiary prevention.
- D. Disability prevention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.
4. How many temporary teeth should the nurse expect to find in a 5-year-old client's mouth?
- A. up to 10
- B. up to 15
- C. up to 20
- D. up to 32
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A 5-year-old child can have up to 20 temporary (deciduous or baby) teeth. The first tooth usually erupts by age 6 months, and the last by age 30 months. All temporary teeth are usually shed between 6 and 13 years of age. Therefore, a 5-year-old child should have up to 20 temporary teeth. The correct answer is 'up to 20.' Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the correct number of temporary teeth in a 5-year-old child's mouth is up to 20, not 10, 15, or 32.
5. All of the following tasks could be delegated to a nursing assistant or unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) except:
- A. monitoring intravenous infusion
- B. assisting a client to the bathroom
- C. offering fluid intake every 1-2 hours
- D. monitoring/recording the amount of fluid taken
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring an intravenous infusion involves assessing for complications, adjusting the flow rate, and monitoring the client's response, which requires the knowledge and skills of a licensed nurse (RN or LPN). Tasks that can be delegated to nursing assistants or unlicensed assistive personnel include assisting a client to the bathroom, offering fluids, and recording fluid intake. These activities are within the scope of practice for UAPs as they do not involve the specialized knowledge and training needed for intravenous infusion monitoring.
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