NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN 2023 Quizlet
1. A patient has been ordered to receive Klonopin for the first time. Which of the following side effects is not associated with Klonopin?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Ataxia
- C. Salivation elevation
- D. Diplopia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Diplopia.' While drowsiness, ataxia, and salivation elevation are common side effects associated with Klonopin, diplopia is not typically linked to this medication. Diplopia, or double vision, is not a common side effect reported with the use of Klonopin. It is important to monitor patients for the known side effects such as drowsiness, ataxia, and salivation elevation when administering Klonopin. Choice A, B, and C are incorrect as they are known side effects of Klonopin, unlike diplopia which is not commonly observed with this medication.
2. What is a chemical reaction between drugs before their administration or absorption known as?
- A. a drug incompatibility
- B. a side effect
- C. an adverse event
- D. an allergic response
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A chemical reaction between drugs before their administration or absorption is termed a drug incompatibility. This phenomenon commonly happens when drug solutions are mixed before intravenous administration, but it can also occur with orally administered drugs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because side effects, adverse events, and allergic responses occur after the administration and absorption of drugs, not prior to it.
3. What advice should be given to a client with stress incontinence?
- A. to consider trying Kegel exercises
- B. to undergo surgery immediately
- C. to avoid all forms of treatment
- D. to ignore the issue as it is not serious
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For stress incontinence, advising the client to consider trying Kegel exercises is appropriate. Kegel exercises involve tightening and releasing the pelvic floor muscles, which can improve stress incontinence by strengthening the muscles that control urination. Choice B suggesting immediate surgery is incorrect as surgery is usually considered after conservative treatments like Kegel exercises have been tried. Choice C advising to avoid all forms of treatment is dangerous and neglectful. Choice D recommending to ignore the issue is inappropriate as it can impact the client's quality of life and may worsen over time without intervention.
4. When discussing the child's wishes for future care, it is important for the nurse to first identify what the child knows about the disease and his prognosis. Factors such as the perceived severity of the illness will be significant in planning for end-of-life care. If the child does not understand the disease process or prognosis, the plan of care would not be effective or realistic. In addition, asking a child about desired interventions in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest would not be an appropriate initial area of questioning. If the child does not understand the disease process, these questions may seem frightening or threatening. While exploring the child's belief about death would be important, it would not be the initial area of discussion and should be guided by the child rather than the nurse.
- A. What the child knows about the disease and his prognosis.
- B. How the child would like to handle the plan of care.
- C. What interventions the child would like in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest.
- D. What the child believes about death.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When discussing the child's wishes for future care, it is essential to first determine what the child understands about the disease and his prognosis. This information is crucial for planning appropriate end-of-life care. If the child lacks comprehension of the illness and its prognosis, any care plan discussed would be ineffective and unrealistic. Inquiring about desired interventions during cardiac or respiratory arrest is not the initial step, as it may cause distress if the child lacks understanding. While exploring the child's beliefs about death is significant, it should not be the primary focus initially and should be approached based on the child's readiness, not the nurse's agenda. Therefore, the correct first step is to assess what the child knows about the disease and his prognosis.
5. Assessment of the client with an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis should include:
- A. inspection for visible pulsations.
- B. palpation of thrill.
- C. percussion for dullness.
- D. auscultation of blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to palpate for a thrill. A thrill should be present in a functioning arteriovenous fistula (AVF) and indicates good blood flow. The client should be educated to check for this sensation daily at home to monitor the AVF's patency. Visible pulsations are not typically observed in an AVF. Percussion for dullness does not provide relevant information about the AVF. Auscultation of blood pressure is not a standard practice in assessing an AVF. However, auscultation of the AVF for a bruit, a sound indicating turbulent blood flow, is crucial in evaluating the AVF's patency.
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