NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN 2023 Quizlet
1. Which of the following injuries, presented by a client entering the Emergency Department, is the highest priority?
- A. open leg fracture
- B. open head injury
- C. stab wound to the chest
- D. traumatic amputation of a thumb
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A stab wound to the chest is the highest priority injury. This type of injury can lead to lung collapse and mediastinal shift, potentially resulting in death if left untreated. Treating an obstructed airway or a chest wound takes precedence over addressing hemorrhage. The principle of ABC (airway, breathing, and circulation) guides care decisions in prioritizing life-threatening situations. An open leg fracture, open head injury, and traumatic amputation of a thumb, while serious, do not pose an immediate threat to life compared to a stab wound to the chest. An open leg fracture may lead to significant blood loss but is not immediately life-threatening. An open head injury requires assessment and intervention but does not impact airway, breathing, or circulation directly. Traumatic amputation of a thumb is a serious injury but can be managed after addressing more life-threatening conditions.
2. A patient has just been prescribed Minipress to control hypertension. The nurse should instruct the patient to be observant of the following:
- A. Dizziness and light-headed sensations
- B. Weight gain
- C. Sensory changes in the lower extremities
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Dizziness and light-headed sensations.' Minipress, a medication used to control hypertension, can cause hypotension as a side effect. Dizziness and light-headed sensations are common symptoms of hypotension. Weight gain, sensory changes in the lower extremities, and fatigue are not typically associated with Minipress or hypertension management. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.
3. The nurse has just received a change-of-shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage
- B. A client 2 days post-gastrectomy with scant drainage
- C.
- D. A client with a fractured hip in Buck's traction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should assess the client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage first because postoperative assessments are crucial during the immediate postoperative period. This client may be at higher risk for complications, such as bleeding or infection, requiring immediate attention. Clients in choices B, C, and D are relatively stable and can be assessed after the immediate postoperative client has been evaluated.
4. What are the side effects of first-generation over-the-counter (OTC) antihistamines like diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and hydroxyzine (Atarax) in infants and children?
- A. Reye's syndrome.
- B. cholinergic effects.
- C. paradoxical CNS stimulation.
- D. nausea and diarrhea.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is paradoxical CNS stimulation. First-generation OTC antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and hydroxyzine, can lead to paradoxical CNS stimulation in infants and children. This phenomenon is characterized by symptoms like excitement, euphoria, restlessness, and confusion, rather than the expected sedative effect. Due to this unexpected response, these antihistamines are used less frequently in pediatric populations. Reye's syndrome is a rare systemic response to a virus and is not a side effect of antihistamines. First-generation OTC antihistamines do not typically exhibit cholinergic effects. Nausea and diarrhea are uncommon side effects of these antihistamines and are less commonly observed than paradoxical CNS stimulation.
5. A female sex worker enters a clinic for treatment of a sexually transmitted disease. This disease is the most prevalent STD in the United States. The nurse can anticipate that the woman has which of the following?
- A. herpes
- B. chlamydia
- C. gonorrhea
- D. syphilis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The question describes a female sex worker seeking treatment for the most prevalent sexually transmitted disease in the United States. Chlamydia is the correct answer as it is the most common STD in the country according to epidemiological studies. While herpes (choice A) is common, it is not the most prevalent. Gonorrhea (choice C) and syphilis (choice D) are less prevalent compared to chlamydia, making them incorrect choices.
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