NCLEX-PN
Nclex Questions Management of Care
1. Which of the following clients requires airborne precautions?
- A. a client with fever, chills, vomiting, and diarrhea
- B. a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox)
- C. a client with abdominal pain and purpura
- D. a client diagnosed with AIDS
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox).' Chickenpox is an acute, infectious airborne illness that requires airborne precautions, including wearing a respirator mask for direct contact with the patient. Choices A, C, and D do not typically require airborne precautions. Choice A describes symptoms that may indicate a gastrointestinal infection but do not require airborne precautions. Choice C mentions abdominal pain and purpura, which are not specific to an airborne illness. Choice D, a client diagnosed with AIDS, does not necessitate airborne precautions unless there are additional infectious conditions present that require such measures.
2. After receiving a recent tattoo, someone should be screened for:
- A. tuberculosis.
- B. herpes.
- C. hepatitis.
- D. syphilis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After receiving a recent tattoo, screening for hepatitis is crucial due to the risk of blood-borne hepatitis B or C if strict sterile procedures are not followed during the tattooing process. Tuberculosis is an airborne pathogen and is not directly related to receiving a tattoo. Herpes and syphilis are infections spread through direct contact, such as sexual contact, and are not typically associated with tattooing.
3. Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?
- A. Bell's palsy
- B. Guillain-Barr� syndrome
- C. Trigeminal neuralgia
- D. Tetanus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Guillain-Barr� syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell's palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Bell's palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.
4. What is a common side effect of Rifampin concerning the client's contact lenses?
- A. The client's urine might turn blue.
- B. The client remains infectious to others for 48 hours.
- C. The client's contact lenses might be stained orange.
- D. The client's skin might take on a crimson glow.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client's contact lenses might be stained orange. Rifampin has the unusual effect of turning body fluids an orange color. Soft contact lenses might become permanently stained, making this an important side effect for the client to be aware of. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. There is no documented effect of Rifampin causing the client's urine to turn blue, the client remaining infectious for 48 hours, or the client's skin taking on a crimson glow.
5. What is the most appropriate feeding method for a client who is unable to swallow?
- A. Nothing by mouth
- B. Nasogastric feedings
- C. Clear liquids
- D. Total parenteral nutrition
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nasogastric feedings are the most appropriate feeding method for a client who is unable to swallow. Providing nothing by mouth can lead to nutritional deficiencies, while clear liquids might cause aspiration. Total parenteral nutrition is not necessary if the gastrointestinal tract is functional. Nasogastric feedings are preferred as they can safely provide nutrition without the risks associated with not eating or aspirating.
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