nclex questions management of care Nclex Questions Management of Care - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Questions Management of Care

1. A client with a nasogastric (NG) tube begins vomiting. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube begins vomiting, the nurse should first check the NG tube placement. Vomiting can be a sign of tube displacement, which can lead to serious complications. Retaping the tube (Choice A), clamping it (Choice B), or removing it (Choice C) without first assessing its placement can be harmful or ineffective. Checking the NG tube placement is crucial as it ensures that the tube is in the correct position and prevents potential complications. Retaping the NG tube (Choice A) is incorrect because the priority is to check the placement first. Clamping the NG tube (Choice B) or removing it (Choice C) without verifying the placement can be dangerous if the tube is dislodged. Thus, these actions should not be taken before confirming the tube's position.

2. During surgery, it is found that a client with adenocarcinoma of the rectum has positive peritoneal lymph nodes. What is the next most likely site of metastasis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of adenocarcinoma of the rectum with positive peritoneal lymph nodes, the most likely site of metastasis is the liver. Colon tumors commonly spread through the lymphatics and portal vein to the liver. While metastasis to the brain, bone, or mediastinum is possible, the liver is typically the first to be affected due to the anatomical pathways involved in colorectal cancer metastasis. Therefore, the correct answer is the liver. Metastasis to the brain, bone, or mediastinum would be less likely at this stage of colorectal cancer progression.

3. The nurse on the 3-11 shift is assessing the chart of a client with an abdominal aneurysm scheduled for surgery in the morning and finds that the consent form has been signed, but the client is unclear about the surgery and possible complications. Which is the most appropriate action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate action in this scenario is to call the surgeon and ask them to see the client to clarify the information. It is the responsibility of the physician to explain and clarify the procedure to the client, ensuring informed consent. Answer B is incorrect as nurses should not provide detailed medical explanations beyond their scope of practice. Answer C is incorrect as the physician's notes may not capture the client's current understanding accurately. Answer D is incorrect because the client's own understanding, not the family's, is crucial for informed decision-making regarding the surgery.

4. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

5. To assess a client's ankle ROM, which ROM exercises should the nurse have them perform?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is extension, flexion, inversion, and eversion. These exercises help assess the full range of motion of the ankles. Flexion and extension evaluate the bending and straightening movements of the ankle joint, respectively. Inversion and eversion assess the inward and outward movements of the foot at the ankle joint. Hyperextension, abduction, and adduction are not specific movements of the ankle joint, making choices A and B incorrect. External and internal rotation are movements more related to joints like the hip or shoulder, not the ankle, making choice C incorrect.

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