NCLEX-PN
Best NCLEX Next Gen Prep
1. Why is Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness significant?
- A. it explains the health beliefs a family is likely to have.
- B. it emphasizes the role of culture in shaping health explanations.
- C. it discusses the significant role of popular and folk domains of influence.
- D. it is structured based on education.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness is significant because it emphasizes the crucial role that popular and folk domains of influence play in shaping individuals' understanding of health and illness. Kleinman distinguishes between disease, which is the biomedical understanding of health problems, and illness, which is the individual's personal interpretation of their health condition. By focusing on the cultural factors that influence these domains of influence, Kleinman's model underscores the impact of cultural beliefs and practices on health perceptions. Choice A is incorrect because the model goes beyond just family health beliefs. Choice B is more precise as it emphasizes the broader influence of culture. Choice C highlights the correct significance of popular and folk domains of influence, making it the correct choice. Choice D is incorrect as the model's significance lies in cultural domains, not educational structure.
2. During a routine health screening for a 1-year-old child, what is the most critical topic for the nurse to discuss with the parents?
- A. the potential hazards of accidents
- B. appropriate nutrition now that the child has been weaned from breastfeeding
- C. toilet training
- D. how to purchase appropriate shoes now that the child is walking
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a routine health screening for a 1-year-old child, the most critical topic for the nurse to discuss with the parents is the potential hazards of accidents. Accidents are the primary source of injury in children and can be life-threatening. Discussions about appropriate nutrition should have been addressed during the weaning process, while the purchase of appropriate shoes is important but not life-threatening. Toilet training typically begins around 2 years of age, so 1 year of age is too early to discuss it. Therefore, the focus should be on educating parents about accident prevention to ensure the child's safety and well-being.
3. How often should the nurse change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions?
- A. every 24 hours
- B. every 36 hours
- C. every 48 hours
- D. every 72 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'every 24 hours.' Changing the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours is crucial due to the high risk of bacterial growth. Bacterial contamination can lead to serious infections in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals between tubing changes increases the risk of bacterial contamination and infection, compromising patient safety. It is essential to maintain a strict 24-hour schedule to minimize the risk of complications associated with bacterial contamination.
4. A client is scheduled to undergo a Papanicolaou (Pap) test in 1 week. Which statement does the nurse make to the client?
- A. 'If you are menstruating, use pads instead of a tampon.'
- B. 'Avoid intercourse for 24 hours before the scheduled examination.'
- C. 'Get a douching kit from the pharmacy and douche 2 hours before the examination.'
- D. 'If you are having a vaginal discharge, obtain a sample of the discharge for inspection.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid intercourse for 24 hours before the scheduled examination.' The Pap test is used to screen for cervical cancer. It is not performed during menstruation or if a heavy infectious discharge is present. Before the test, the client should not douche, have intercourse, or insert anything into the vagina within 24 hours. Instructing the client to use pads instead of a tampon when menstruating can interfere with the test results due to the presence of blood. Douching before the exam is discouraged as it can alter the cervical cells' appearance, affecting the test's accuracy. Obtaining a sample of vaginal discharge for inspection is not a standard pre-Pap test instruction and is unnecessary for the test.
5. The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles.
- B. When refrigerating formula, discard partially used bottles after 24 hours.
- C. When using formula concentrate, mix one part water and one part concentrate.
- D. When using powdered formula, mix two parts water and one part powder.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles. It is essential for parents to be cautious when warming bottles in a microwave oven to prevent superheating of the milk. Choosing the defrost setting and checking the formula temperature before giving it to the baby helps avoid burns. Discarding partially used bottles after 24 hours when refrigerating formula is crucial as it reduces the risk of harmful bacterial growth. Mixing formula concentrate with water in a 1:1 ratio of one part concentrate to one part water ensures proper dilution of the formula. On the other hand, powdered formula should be mixed following the package instructions, typically using two parts water to one part powder. This accurate mixing ratio provides the necessary balance of nutrients for the baby. Adding fresh formula to partially used bottles can introduce pathogens that may harm the infant, underscoring the importance of discarding partially used bottles and preparing formula correctly. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the safe and proper ways to feed a newborn effectively.
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