NCLEX-PN
Best NCLEX Next Gen Prep
1. The parents of a 2-year-old child ask the nurse how they can teach their child to stop taking toys away from other children. Which of the following statements by the nurse offers the parents the best explanation of their child's behavior?
- A. "Your child is egocentric. Egocentricity is normal for 2-year-old children. He believes other children want him to have their toys."?
- B. "Your child is showing negativity. He doesn't want other children to have the toys he wants."?
- C. "Your child is demonstrating magical thinking. He believes he can make the other children want him to play with their toys."?
- D. "Your child is engaging in domestic imitation. He is doing what he has seen other children do."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Two-year-old children are very egocentric, believing everything revolves around them. They think other children want them to have their toys, which explains why they may take toys from others. This behavior is typical for children at this age as they lack the ability to see things from another's perspective. Option B is incorrect because negativity in children this age is more related to refusal of requests rather than taking toys. Magical thinking, as described in option C, is usually seen in preschool-age children and involves unrealistic beliefs. Option D is incorrect as domestic imitation refers to imitating adult household tasks, not other children's behavior.
2. Which of the following vaccines contains a live virus?
- A. varicella
- B. IPV
- C. DTaP
- D. hepatitis B
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is varicella. Varicella vaccine contains a live, weakened form of the varicella-zoster virus. Choice B, IPV (inactivated poliovirus vaccine), is an inactivated vaccine, not a live virus vaccine. Choices C and D, DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis vaccine) and hepatitis B vaccine, respectively, do not contain live viruses. Varicella is the only live virus vaccine among the options.
3. When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?
- A. Hysterosalpingography
- B. Semen analysis
- C. Endometrial biopsy
- D. Transvaginal ultrasound
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Semen analysis is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a couple experiencing infertility. It is the least invasive of the listed tests, and since male factor infertility contributes to around 35% of cases, assessing semen parameters early is crucial. Hysterosalpingography is a radiographic test to evaluate tubal patency and uterine cavity abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy assesses endometrial receptivity post-ovulation. Transvaginal ultrasound is mainly used in infertility treatment to monitor follicle development, oocyte maturity, and luteal phase defects. Choices A, C, and D are more invasive, require specialized expertise, and are costlier. If semen analysis yields normal results, further tests may be warranted.
4. A new mother who is breastfeeding her newborn calls the nurse at the pediatrician's office and reports that her infant is passing seedy, mustard-yellow stools. The nurse provides the mother with which information?
- A. To monitor the infant for infection and, if a fever develops, to contact the pediatrician
- B. That the stools should be solid and pale yellow to light brown
- C. That this is normal for breastfed infants
- D. To decrease the number of feedings by two per day
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Breastfed infants pass very soft, seedy, mustard-yellow stools, which is considered normal. Formula-fed infants excrete stools that are more solid and pale yellow to light brown. It is essential for the mother to understand that seedy, mustard-yellow stools are expected in breastfed infants, indicating that there is no need for concern. Monitoring for infection as the first response without other symptoms can cause unnecessary anxiety. Decreasing the number of feedings without valid reasons can lead to inadequate nutrition for the newborn. Therefore, the correct advice for the nurse to provide in this scenario is that seedy, mustard-yellow stools are normal for breastfed infants, reassuring the mother and promoting proper understanding of newborn stool characteristics.
5. A nurse is preparing to assist the healthcare provider in performing an internal gynecological examination of a client. In which position does the nurse place the client for this examination?
- A. Prone
- B. Left side-lying
- C. Sims
- D. Lithotomy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An internal gynecological examination is performed with the client in the lithotomy position. In this position, the client is supine, with the feet in stirrups, the knees apart, and the buttocks at the end of the examining table. The client is draped so that only the vulva is exposed. The lithotomy position provides optimal access for the healthcare provider to perform the examination effectively. The prone position refers to lying on the stomach, which is not suitable for a gynecological exam. The Sims position is a left side-lying position primarily used for administering enemas, not for gynecological examinations.
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