nclex question of the day NCLEX Question of The Day - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX Question of The Day

1. Which client should the nurse see first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client presenting with recurring crushing chest pain should be seen first as this symptom could indicate a myocardial infarction (MI), which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. Assessing and managing potential cardiac issues take priority over other concerns like needing an IV for surgery, pain control post-hysterectomy, or assistance with mobility. While all clients require care, addressing the chest pain promptly is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

2. What type of diet is appropriate for a client with chronic cirrhosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct diet for a client with chronic cirrhosis is high calorie, low protein. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired protein metabolism, making it essential to limit protein intake. High-calorie foods help meet the client's energy needs. Choice B (High protein, high calorie) is incorrect because high protein intake can worsen hepatic encephalopathy. Choice C (Low fat, low sodium) is not the most appropriate diet for cirrhosis as the focus should be on calories and protein. Choice D (High calorie, low sodium) does not address the need to restrict protein intake, which is crucial in cirrhosis.

3. For which adverse effect of the block does the postpartum nurse monitor the woman after receiving a subarachnoid (spinal) block for a cesarean delivery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Headache.' Postdural headache is a common adverse effect associated with a subarachnoid block due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage at the site of dural puncture. This headache worsens when the woman is upright and may improve when she lies flat. To manage this headache, bed rest and adequate hydration are recommended. Pruritus, vomiting, and hypertension are not typically associated with subarachnoid blocks. Pruritus, nausea, and vomiting are more commonly linked to the use of intrathecal opioids.

4. Which client should be seen first by the Emergency Department nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority in the emergency department is to assess and manage clients based on the severity of their condition. In this scenario, the three-year-old with wheezes in the right lower lobe should be seen first because respiratory distress takes precedence over other conditions. Wheezing indicates potential airway compromise, which requires immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. The other options are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway and breathing. A femur fracture, fever, or a dislodged gastrostomy tube can be addressed after ensuring the child with respiratory distress is stable.

5. Which infection control measure is the priority for the nurse to implement in the care provided for a child admitted to the hospital with bacterial meningitis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority control measure for the nurse to implement in caring for a child with bacterial meningitis is ensuring that gowns and masks are worn by all personnel in the child's room. This measure is crucial as the child with bacterial meningitis is contagious for at least 24 hours after starting antibiotics, necessitating airborne precautions to prevent the spread of infection to healthcare workers and other patients. Placing the child in a private room (Choice A) is important but secondary to preventing infection transmission. Restricting visitors to parents only (Choice C) is also significant but not as critical as ensuring proper infection control measures. While hand washing (Choice D) is essential, the immediate need to prevent airborne transmission in the child's room takes precedence.

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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