NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. A client is admitted to the floor with vomiting and diarrhea for three days. She is receiving IV fluids at 200cc/hr via pump. A priority action for the nurse would be:
- A. Obtaining Intake and Output.
- B. Frequent lung assessments.
- C. Vital signs every shift.
- D. Monitoring the IV site for infiltration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct priority action for the nurse would be monitoring the IV site for infiltration. The client is receiving IV fluids at a rapid rate, making it crucial to ensure that the IV site is intact and not causing any complications like infiltration, which can lead to tissue damage. While frequent lung assessments are important for detecting signs of fluid overload, in this case, ensuring the IV site's integrity takes precedence. Obtaining Intake and Output is relevant but not the priority over monitoring the IV site. Vital signs are essential, but given the situation, the immediate concern is the IV site's condition to prevent complications.
2. A 32-year-old male with a complaint of dizziness has an order for Morphine via IV. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check the patient's chest x-ray results.
- B. Retake vitals including blood pressure.
- C. Perform a neurological screening on the patient.
- D. Request the physician on-call to assess the patient.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to retake the patient's vitals, including blood pressure. Dizziness can be a sign of hypotension, which may be a contraindication for administering Morphine. Checking the chest x-ray results (Choice A) would not be the priority in this case as addressing the dizziness is more urgent. Performing a neurological screening (Choice C) may be important but not the first step when a patient presents with dizziness and an order for Morphine. Requesting the physician to assess the patient (Choice D) should come after the initial assessment and vitals retake.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's ECG report. The patient exhibits a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and short QT interval. Which of the following medications can cause all of the above effects?
- A. Morphine
- B. Atropine
- C. Procardia
- D. Digitalis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Digitalis. Digitalis is known to cause a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and a short QT interval on an ECG report. These ECG changes are characteristic of digitalis toxicity. Morphine is not typically associated with these ECG changes. Atropine is more commonly linked to increasing heart rate rather than causing these specific ECG abnormalities. Procardia is a calcium channel blocker that does not typically produce the described ECG findings. Therefore, Digitalis is the most likely medication causing these effects in the patient.
4. A client has been receiving cyanocobalamin (B12) injections for the past 6 weeks. Which laboratory finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?
- A. Neutrophil count of 60%
- B. Basophil count of 0.5%
- C. Monocyte count of 2%
- D. Reticulocyte count of 1%
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cyanocobalamin is a B12 medication used for pernicious anemia. A reticulocyte count of 1% indicates the desired effect of the medication, as reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that increase in response to B12 therapy, improving anemia. Neutrophils, basophils, and monocytes are white blood cells and are not directly influenced by B12 injections, making them incorrect choices.
5. A patient has fallen off a bicycle and fractured the head of the proximal fibula. A cast was placed on the patient's lower extremity. Which of the following is the most probable result of the fall?
- A. Peroneal nerve injury
- B. Tibial nerve injury
- C. Sciatic nerve injury
- D. Femoral nerve injury
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is peroneal nerve injury. The head of the proximal fibula is in close proximity to the peroneal nerve, making it susceptible to injury when there is a fracture. The peroneal nerve runs along the fibula and can be affected by trauma to this area. Choice B, tibial nerve injury, is incorrect as the fracture site is closer to the peroneal nerve, not the tibial nerve. Choice C, sciatic nerve injury, is incorrect as the injury is more localized to the fibular head area where the peroneal nerve is affected. Choice D, femoral nerve injury, is incorrect as the femoral nerve is not immediately adjacent to the proximal fibula and is not typically affected by this type of injury.
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