NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. An infection in a central venous access device is not eliminated by giving antibiotics through the catheter. How might bacterial glycocalyx contribute to this?
- A. It protects the bacteria from antibiotic and immunologic destruction.
- B. Glycocalyx neutralizes the antibiotic, rendering it ineffective.
- C. It competes with the antibiotic for binding sites on the microbe.
- D. Glycocalyx provides nutrients for microbial growth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bacterial glycocalyx is a viscous polysaccharide or polypeptide slime that covers microbes. It plays a significant role in protecting bacteria by enhancing adherence to surfaces, resisting phagocytic engulfment by white blood cells, and preventing antibiotics from contacting the microbe. Choice A is correct because glycocalyx shields the bacteria from both antibiotics and the immune system, allowing the infection to persist. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because glycocalyx does not neutralize antibiotics, compete for binding sites with antibiotics, or provide nutrients for microbial growth.
2. A patient 3 hours post-op from a hysterectomy is complaining of intense pain at the incision site. When assessing the patient, the nurse notes a BP of 169/93, pulse 145 bpm, and regular. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Reassure the patient that pain is normal following surgery.
- B. Administer prn Nifedipine and assess the client's response.
- C. Administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response.
- D. Recheck BP and pulse rate every 20 minutes for the next hour.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response. A BP of 169/93 and a pulse of 145 bpm indicate pain-related hypertension and sinus tachycardia, which are physiological responses to pain. Treating the cause of the increased pulse rate requires pain medication. Reassuring the patient about normal post-surgery pain is important, but addressing the physiological responses to pain is a priority. Administering Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for pain management but for hypertension. Rechecking the BP and pulse rate without addressing the pain directly does not address the underlying issue causing the elevated vital signs.
3. A healthcare provider is caring for a patient who has experienced burns to the right lower extremity. According to the Rule of Nines, which of the following percentages most accurately describes the severity of the injury?
- A. 36%
- B. 27%
- C. 18%
- D. 9%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: According to the Rule of Nines, the right lower extremity accounts for 18% of the total body surface area. The Rule of Nines divides the body into regions, each representing 9% or a multiple of 9%, allowing for a quick estimation of the extent of burns. In this case, the correct answer is 18% as it corresponds to the percentage allocated for each lower extremity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not match the standard allocation for the right lower extremity in the Rule of Nines.
4. Which of the following arterial blood gas values indicates a patient may be experiencing a condition of metabolic acidosis?
- A. PaO2 90 mm Hg
- B. Bicarbonate 15 mEq/L
- C. CO2 47 mm Hg
- D. pH 7.34
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bicarbonate 15 mEq/L. In metabolic acidosis, the bicarbonate levels are lower than normal. A bicarbonate value of 15 mEq/L indicates a deficit in the buffer system, contributing to the acidosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A, PaO2 90 mm Hg, reflects oxygen partial pressure and is not directly related to metabolic acidosis. Choice C, CO2 47 mm Hg, represents carbon dioxide levels and is more indicative of respiratory status. Choice D, pH 7.34, falls within the normal range (7.35-7.45) and does not confirm metabolic acidosis.
5. The PN is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. The nurse can expect the lab work to show:
- A. elevated urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity.
- B. decreased urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity.
- C. elevated urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity.
- D. decreased urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In diabetes insipidus, the pituitary releases too much antidiuretic hormone (ADH), causing the client to produce a large amount of dilute urine (decreased osmolarity) and leading to dehydration (elevated serum osmolarity). Therefore, the correct answer is decreased urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity. Choice C, elevated urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity, is incorrect for diabetes insipidus, as it is more characteristic of syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH). Choices A and B, elevated urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity, and decreased urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity, respectively, are generally not seen in diabetes insipidus, as urine and serum osmolarity typically move in opposite directions in this condition.
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