NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. At what age will vision be 20/20 in children?
- A. 4 years old
- B. 5 years old
- C. 6 years old
- D. 7 years old
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 6 years old. At this age, children typically have the potential for 20/20 vision. This is considered the standard age for achieving optimal vision clarity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the age at which children achieve 20/20 vision.
2. A healthcare provider is caring for a patient who has experienced burns to the right lower extremity. According to the Rule of Nines, which of the following percentages most accurately describes the severity of the injury?
- A. 36%
- B. 27%
- C. 18%
- D. 9%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: According to the Rule of Nines, the right lower extremity accounts for 18% of the total body surface area. The Rule of Nines divides the body into regions, each representing 9% or a multiple of 9%, allowing for a quick estimation of the extent of burns. In this case, the correct answer is 18% as it corresponds to the percentage allocated for each lower extremity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not match the standard allocation for the right lower extremity in the Rule of Nines.
3. A patient had a pneumonectomy to the right lung performed 48 hours ago. Which of the following conditions most likely exists?
- A. Decreased breath sound volume
- B. Elevated tidal volume
- C. Elevated respiratory capacity
- D. Wheezing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, where a lung is surgically removed, there will be a decrease in breath sound volume on the affected side due to reduced airflow. This reduction in breath sound volume is expected as there is less lung tissue to produce sound. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Elevated tidal volume and respiratory capacity are not expected after a pneumonectomy, and wheezing is more commonly associated with conditions like asthma or bronchitis, not a recent pneumonectomy.
4. A client who has a known history of cardiac problems and is still smoking enters the clinic complaining of sudden onset of sharp, stabbing pain that intensifies with a deep breath. The pain is occurring on only one side and can be isolated upon general assessment. The nurse concludes that this description is most likely caused by:
- A. pleurisy.
- B. pleural effusion.
- C. atelectasis.
- D. tuberculosis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pleurisy is an inflammation of the pleura and is often accompanied by an abrupt onset of pain. Symptoms of pleurisy include sudden sharp, stabbing pain that is usually unilateral and localized to a specific portion of the chest. The pain can be exacerbated by deep breathing. In contrast, pleural effusion is characterized by fluid accumulation in the pleural space, not sharp pain. Atelectasis involves collapse or closure of a lung leading to reduced gas exchange, but it does not typically present with sharp, stabbing pain. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs but does not typically manifest with sudden sharp pain exacerbated by deep breathing.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's ECG report. The patient exhibits a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and short QT interval. Which of the following medications can cause all of the above effects?
- A. Morphine
- B. Atropine
- C. Procardia
- D. Digitalis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Digitalis. Digitalis is known to cause a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and a short QT interval on an ECG report. These ECG changes are characteristic of digitalis toxicity. Morphine is not typically associated with these ECG changes. Atropine is more commonly linked to increasing heart rate rather than causing these specific ECG abnormalities. Procardia is a calcium channel blocker that does not typically produce the described ECG findings. Therefore, Digitalis is the most likely medication causing these effects in the patient.
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