NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. A 15-year-old high school wrestler has been taking diuretics to lose weight to compete in a lower weight class. Which of the following medical tests is most likely to be given?
- A. Lab values of Potassium and Sodium
- B. Lab values of Glucose and Hemoglobin
- C. ECG
- D. CT scan
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Diuretics can disrupt the sodium and potassium balance, potentially leading to cardiac complications. Monitoring the lab values of potassium and sodium is crucial to assess electrolyte imbalances due to diuretic use. Testing glucose and hemoglobin levels is not directly related to diuretic use in this context. An ECG would be indicated if there were signs or symptoms of cardiac abnormalities, but it is not the primary test to monitor the effects of diuretics. A CT scan is not typically used to assess electrolyte imbalances caused by diuretics.
2. A client with sickle cell disease is worried about passing the disease on to children. Which of the following statements by the PN is most appropriate for this client?
- A. "You should discuss the inheritance risk with your physician."?
- B. "Sickle cell disease is genetically based and might be passed on to children."?
- C. "Sickle cell disease is genetically based and is not passed on to children."?
- D. "Sickle cell disease is caused by an infection and cannot be passed on to children."?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with sickle cell disease has a genetic condition that can be passed on to their offspring. The most appropriate statement for the PN to provide is to acknowledge this fact and inform the client that sickle cell disease is genetically based and might be passed on to children. This empowers the client with accurate information. Choice A has been refined to emphasize discussing the inheritance risk, making it a better option than the vague original choice. Choices C and D provide incorrect information. Sickle cell disease is indeed genetically based and can be inherited.
3. In conducting a community health fair for a group of middle-aged citizens, which statement should the nurse emphasize in reducing the risk of coronary heart disease?
- A. Participate in at least 30 minutes of moderate physical activity 3 to 5 days per week.
- B. Engage in an aerobic exercise class every day.
- C. Limit your alcohol intake to a moderate level.
- D. The best way to lose weight is to follow a balanced diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Engaging in an aerobic exercise class every day is crucial in reducing the risk of coronary heart disease. Aerobic exercises help keep the heart in shape, lower blood pressure, and improve cholesterol levels. It is recommended to participate in at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic exercise per week, which can be achieved by engaging in aerobic exercise daily. Choice A has been corrected to emphasize the frequency required to significantly reduce the risk of coronary heart disease. Choice C has been modified to suggest moderation in alcohol intake, as excessive alcohol consumption is harmful. Choice D is also incorrect as a balanced diet, not specifically high-protein, high-fat, is recommended to reduce the risk of coronary heart disease and maintain a healthy weight.
4. After experiencing a left frontal lobe CVA, a fifty-five-year-old man is being monitored by a nurse. The patient's family is not present in the room. What should the nurse observe most closely for?
- A. Changes in emotion and behavior
- B. Monitor loss of hearing
- C. Observe appetite and vision deficits
- D. Changes in facial muscle control
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to watch for changes in emotion and behavior. The frontal lobe, particularly the left side, is responsible for regulating behavior and emotions. Therefore, following a left frontal lobe CVA, monitoring for alterations in emotion and behavior is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because loss of hearing, appetite and vision deficits, and changes in facial muscle control are not directly associated with a left frontal lobe CVA.
5. Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhea in the pregnant woman?
- A. Progesterone
- B. Estrogen
- C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
- D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Progesterone is the hormone responsible for amenorrhea in pregnant women. Progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining for implantation and supporting early pregnancy. High levels of progesterone during pregnancy suppress the normal menstrual cycle, leading to amenorrhea. Estrogen, FSH, and hCG do not directly cause amenorrhea in pregnant women. Estrogen is involved in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, FSH is involved in the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, and hCG is produced by the placenta to support the production of progesterone during pregnancy.
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