NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. A 15-year-old high school wrestler has been taking diuretics to lose weight to compete in a lower weight class. Which of the following medical tests is most likely to be given?
- A. Lab values of Potassium and Sodium
- B. Lab values of Glucose and Hemoglobin
- C. ECG
- D. CT scan
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Diuretics can disrupt the sodium and potassium balance, potentially leading to cardiac complications. Monitoring the lab values of potassium and sodium is crucial to assess electrolyte imbalances due to diuretic use. Testing glucose and hemoglobin levels is not directly related to diuretic use in this context. An ECG would be indicated if there were signs or symptoms of cardiac abnormalities, but it is not the primary test to monitor the effects of diuretics. A CT scan is not typically used to assess electrolyte imbalances caused by diuretics.
2. A patient has a history of cardiac arrhythmia. A nurse has been ordered to give 2 units of blood to this patient. The nurse should take which of the following actions?
- A. Administer pain medication to the patient.
- B. Inform the patient's family about the procedure in person.
- C. Decrease the temperature of the blood to be given.
- D. Increase the temperature of the blood to be given.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In patients with a history of cardiac arrhythmia, warming the blood before transfusion can help prevent additional arrhythmias. Cold blood can lead to arrhythmias and should be avoided. Administering pain medication (Choice A) is not directly related to the safe administration of blood. Informing the patient's family in person (Choice B) is important but not the immediate action required for safe transfusion. Decreasing the temperature of the blood to be given (Choice C) would increase the risk of cardiac arrhythmia, contrary to the goal of ensuring patient safety.
3. When a person using over-the-counter nasal decongestant drops experiences unrelieved and worsening nasal congestion, what should be instructed?
- A. switch to a stronger dose of the same medication.
- B. discontinue the medication for a few weeks.
- C. continue taking the same medication, but use it more frequently.
- D. use a combination of medications for better relief.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a person using over-the-counter nasal decongestant drops experiences unrelieved and worsening nasal congestion, it is crucial to discontinue the medication for a few weeks. Prolonged use of decongestant drops can lead to rebound congestion, which is relieved by stopping the medication for a period of time. Nasal congestion occurs due to various factors like infection, inflammation, or allergy, leading to swelling of the nasal cavity. Nasal decongestants work by stimulating alpha-adrenergic receptors, causing vasoconstriction and shrinking of nasal mucous membranes. However, prolonged use can result in vasodilation, worsening nasal congestion. Switching to a stronger dose of the same medication is not recommended as it can exacerbate the issue. Continuing the same medication more frequently or using a combination of medications are also not advised and may lead to side effects. Educating individuals on proper decongestant use and potential risks of prolonged usage is essential, especially for those with specific health conditions.
4. Teaching the client with gonorrhea how to prevent reinfection and further spread is an example of
- A. primary prevention
- B. secondary prevention
- C. tertiary prevention
- D. primary health care prevention
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. This type of prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease by early detection and treatment. In the case of gonorrhea, teaching the client how to prevent reinfection and further spread falls under secondary prevention because it aims to reduce the prevalence and morbidity of the disease. Choice A (primary prevention) involves measures to prevent the disease from occurring in the first place, such as vaccination. Choice C (tertiary prevention) focuses on managing the long-term consequences of a disease to prevent complications. Choice D (primary health care prevention) is not a recognized term in prevention strategies.
5. The schizophrenic client who is admitted to the hospital for possible bowel obstruction has an NG tube and complains of pain. What should the nurse do at this time?
- A. Decrease the stimuli and observe frequently
- B. Administer the PRN sedative
- C. Call the physician immediately
- D. Administer the PRN pain medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer the PRN (as needed) pain medication to address the schizophrenic client's complaint of pain. It is essential to provide relief and comfort to the client experiencing pain. Option A, decreasing stimuli and observing frequently, may not address the underlying cause of pain and delay relief. Option B, administering a sedative, does not target the pain but may mask symptoms. Option C, calling the physician immediately, while important in some situations, is not the most immediate action needed to alleviate the client's pain. Therefore, the most appropriate action at this time is to administer the PRN pain medication to help alleviate the client's discomfort.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access