Nursing Elites

1. For which adverse effect of the block does the postpartum nurse monitor the woman after receiving a subarachnoid (spinal) block for a cesarean delivery?

• A. Headache
• B. Pruritus
• C. Vomiting
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Headache.' Postdural headache is a common adverse effect associated with a subarachnoid block due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage at the site of dural puncture. This headache worsens when the woman is upright and may improve when she lies flat. To manage this headache, bed rest and adequate hydration are recommended. Pruritus, vomiting, and hypertension are not typically associated with subarachnoid blocks. Pruritus, nausea, and vomiting are more commonly linked to the use of intrathecal opioids.

2. To determine the standards of care for the institution, the nurse should consult?

• A. Organizational Chart
• B. Personnel policies
• C. Policies and procedure manual
• D. Job descriptions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the 'Policies and procedure manual.' This manual outlines the policies and procedures that govern patient care within the institution, including the standards of care that healthcare providers are expected to follow. Consulting the policies and procedure manual ensures that the nurse is adhering to the established guidelines and protocols. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although they are important documents within an institution, they do not specifically define the standards of care for patient management. The organizational chart illustrates the hierarchy of the institution, personnel policies outline rules related to employees, and job descriptions detail specific roles and responsibilities, none of which directly define patient care standards.

3. The client diagnosed with end-stage liver disease has completed an advance directive and a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) document and wishes to receive palliative care. Which of the following would correspond to the client's wish for comfort care?

• A. Positioning frequently to prevent skin breakdown and providing pain management and other comfort measures
• B. Carrying out vigorous resuscitation efforts if the client were to stop breathing, but no resuscitation if the heart stops beating
• C. Providing intravenous fluids when the client becomes dehydrated
• D. Providing total parenteral nutrition (TPN) if the client is not able to eat

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Palliative care includes measures to prevent skin breakdown, pain management, and management of other symptoms that cause discomfort, as well as encouraging contact with family and friends. A DNR request precludes all resuscitative efforts related to respiratory or cardiac arrest, making choice B incorrect. Dehydration is a natural part of the dying process, so providing intravenous fluids as in choice C would not align with the client's wish for comfort care. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as in choice D is an invasive procedure meant to prolong life and is not part of palliative care, which focuses on improving quality of life rather than extending it.

4. A patient has been diagnosed with fibromyalgia and COPD. Which of the following tasks should the nurse delegate to a nursing assistant?

• A. Transferring the patient to the shower.
• B. Ambulating the patient for the first time.
• C. Taking the patient's breath sounds.
• D. Educating the patient on monitoring fatigue.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to delegate the task of transferring the patient to the shower to a nursing assistant. Nursing assistants are trained to assist with transfers safely, making this task appropriate for delegation. Ambulating the patient for the first time involves assessing the patient's mobility and tolerance, which requires more assessment and monitoring by a nurse, especially in a patient with fibromyalgia and COPD. Taking the patient's breath sounds involves assessing the patient's respiratory status, which is a nursing responsibility due to the need for clinical judgment. Educating the patient on monitoring fatigue involves providing vital information and should be done by the nurse to ensure comprehensive understanding and tailored recommendations.

5. A 70-year-old male who is recovering from a stroke exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect?

• A. The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
• B. The client is unable to distinguish between two tactile stimuli presented simultaneously.
• C. The client is unable to complete a range of vision without turning his head side to side.
• D. The client is unable to carry out cognitive and motor activity at the same time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Unilateral neglect is a condition where a person ignores one side of their body. In this case, the behavior of shaving only one side of the face indicates neglect of the other side. This behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect as the individual is failing to attend to one side of their body. Choices B, C, and D are not associated with unilateral neglect. Choice B refers to tactile agnosia, a condition where a person cannot recognize objects by touch, not related to ignoring one side of the body. Choice C describes a visual field cut, which is a different visual deficit. Choice D relates to dual-task interference, not specific to ignoring one side of the body.

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