neural tube defects in the fetus have been primarily associated with which deficiency in the mother
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NCLEX-PN

NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023

1. Which deficiency in the mother has been primarily associated with neural tube defects in the fetus?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Folic acid deficiency in the mother has been primarily associated with neural tube defects in the fetus. Folic acid is crucial for the development of the neural tube in the early stages of pregnancy. Its deficiency can lead to neural tube defects, such as spina bifida or anencephaly. Iron deficiency is not directly related to neural tube defects but can cause other complications in pregnancy. Vitamin B12 is important for neurological function but is not the primary cause of neural tube defects. Vitamin E deficiency is not associated with neural tube defects in the fetus.

2. The client develops a tension pneumothorax. Assessment is expected to reveal?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a tension pneumothorax, the trachea deviates to the unaffected side due to increased pressure in the affected pleural space, causing respiratory distress. Dyspnea is a hallmark symptom as the lung on the affected side collapses, leading to difficulty in breathing. Sudden hypertension and bradycardia (Choice A) are not typical findings of tension pneumothorax. Productive cough with yellow mucus (Choice B) is more suggestive of respiratory infections rather than a tension pneumothorax. Sudden development of profuse hemoptysis and weakness (Choice D) is not characteristic of tension pneumothorax presentation.

3. A patient who has delivered an 8.2 lb. baby boy 3 days ago via c-section, reports white patches on her breast that aren't going away. Which of the following medications may be necessary?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient is likely experiencing thrush, a fungal infection, which can present as white patches on the breast that persist. Nystatin is an antifungal medication commonly used to treat thrush. Therefore, the correct answer is Nystatin. Atropine is not indicated for this condition and is used for different purposes. Amoxil is an antibiotic and would not be effective against a fungal infection like thrush. Lortab is a pain medication and is not appropriate for treating thrush.

4. At what age will vision be 20/20 in children?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 6 years old. At this age, children typically have the potential for 20/20 vision. This is considered the standard age for achieving optimal vision clarity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the age at which children achieve 20/20 vision.

5. A patient 3 hours post-op from a hysterectomy is complaining of intense pain at the incision site. When assessing the patient, the nurse notes a BP of 169/93, pulse 145 bpm, and regular. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response. A BP of 169/93 and a pulse of 145 bpm indicate pain-related hypertension and sinus tachycardia, which are physiological responses to pain. Treating the cause of the increased pulse rate requires pain medication. Reassuring the patient about normal post-surgery pain is important, but addressing the physiological responses to pain is a priority. Administering Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for pain management but for hypertension. Rechecking the BP and pulse rate without addressing the pain directly does not address the underlying issue causing the elevated vital signs.

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