Nursing Elites

1. A 20-year-old obese female client is preparing to have gastric bypass surgery for weight loss. She says to the nurse, 'I need this surgery because nothing else I have done has helped me to lose weight.' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. "If you eat less, you can save some money."?
• B. "Exercise is a healthier way to lose weight."?
• C. "You should try the Atkins diet first."?
• D. "I respect your decision to choose surgery."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse is to show respect and empathy towards the client's decision. Choosing surgery for weight loss is a significant decision, and acknowledging and respecting this choice is crucial in providing patient-centered care. Option D is the correct answer as it validates the client's decision and shows support. Options A, B, and C are all inappropriate as they do not address the client's feelings, lack empathy, and can be considered insensitive and unprofessional.

2. The schizophrenic client who is admitted to the hospital for possible bowel obstruction has an NG tube and complains of pain. What should the nurse do at this time?

• A. Decrease the stimuli and observe frequently
• B. Administer the PRN sedative
• C. Call the physician immediately
• D. Administer the PRN pain medication

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer the PRN (as needed) pain medication to address the schizophrenic client's complaint of pain. It is essential to provide relief and comfort to the client experiencing pain. Option A, decreasing stimuli and observing frequently, may not address the underlying cause of pain and delay relief. Option B, administering a sedative, does not target the pain but may mask symptoms. Option C, calling the physician immediately, while important in some situations, is not the most immediate action needed to alleviate the client's pain. Therefore, the most appropriate action at this time is to administer the PRN pain medication to help alleviate the client's discomfort.

3. A physician orders a serum creatinine for a hospitalized client. The nurse should explain to the client and his family that this test:

• A. is normal if the level is 4.0 to 5.5 mg/dl.
• B. can be elevated with increased protein intake.
• C. is a better indicator of renal function than the BUN.
• D. reflects the fluid volume status of a person

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum creatinine level should be 0.7 to 1.5 mg/dl, and it does not vary with increased protein intake, so it is a better indicator of renal function than the BUN. Choice A is incorrect as a serum creatinine level of 4.0 to 5.5 mg/dl is not normal. Choice B is incorrect as serum creatinine is not affected by increased protein intake. Choice D is incorrect as serum creatinine primarily reflects renal function, not fluid volume status.

4. Nurses should understand the chain of infection because it refers to:

• A. the linkages involved in disease transmission.
• B. the sequence required for transmission of disease.
• C. the clustering of bacteria in a specific pattern.
• D. increasing virulence patterns among microorganisms.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The chain of infection refers to the sequence required for the transmission of disease, involving steps like the pathogen's presence, movement from a reservoir, and entry into a susceptible host. Understanding this sequence helps healthcare professionals, including nurses, in implementing effective infection control measures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the concept of the chain of infection. Choice A is too broad and does not specifically address the sequential nature of disease transmission. Choice C focuses on bacterial clustering rather than the transmission process. Choice D mentions virulence patterns, which are not the primary focus of the chain of infection concept.

5. Which symptom is the client who self-administered an overdose of acetaminophen most likely to exhibit?

• A. Pink frothy sputum
• B. Seizure activity
• C. Jaundiced conjunctiva
• D. Diaphoresis and fever

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client self-administers an overdose of acetaminophen, the liver is primarily affected. Jaundiced conjunctiva, which is yellowing of the eyes, is a common symptom of liver damage. Pink frothy sputum is typically associated with conditions like pulmonary edema, not acetaminophen overdose. Seizure activity is not a common symptom of acetaminophen overdose but can be seen in other toxicities. Diaphoresis and fever are more generalized symptoms and not specific to acetaminophen overdose.

Similar Questions