NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The client is undergoing an induction for fetal demise at 34 weeks. Immediately after delivery, the mother asks to see the infant. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Bring the swaddled fetus to the mother
- B. Explain that the cause of death must be determined before she can see the baby
- C. Ask her if she is sure she wants to see the baby
- D. Tell her it would be better to wait until she is in her room before she sees the baby
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should bring the swaddled fetus to the mother as the best response. Allowing the mother to see the infant immediately after delivery is crucial for her grieving process. It provides her with the opportunity to bond, say goodbye, and start the grieving process. Choice B is incorrect because delaying the mother's request to see the baby can hinder her grieving process and prolong her suffering. Choice C is inappropriate as it questions the mother's decision at a sensitive time, potentially causing distress. Choice D is also not the best response as it suggests waiting, which may not be in the mother's best interest at that moment, as she needs immediate support and closure.
2. Paula is a 32-year-old woman seeking evaluation and treatment for major depressive symptoms. A major nursing priority during the assessment process includes which of the following?
- A. meaning of current stressors
- B. possibility of self-harm
- C. motivation to participate in treatment
- D. presence of alcohol or other drug use
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to consider the possibility of self-harm during the assessment process. This is crucial because unless the client is first assessed for self-harm or suicide potential, the necessary degree of vigilance in the client's environment may not be observed. While understanding the meaning of current stressors is important for treatment planning, ensuring the client's safety takes precedence. Motivation to participate in treatment and the presence of alcohol or other drug use are also important aspects to assess but ensuring the client's safety is the top priority in this scenario.
3. During a screening on a patient with a recent cast on the left lower extremity, which of the following statements should the nurse be most concerned about?
- A. The patient reports, "I didn't keep my extremity elevated as the doctor asked me to."?
- B. The patient reports, "I have been having pain in my left calf."?
- C. The patient reports, "My left leg has really been itching."?
- D. The patient reports, "The arthritis in my wrists is flaring up when I put weight on my crutches."?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because pain in the left calf could indicate a potential neurovascular complication related to the casted extremity. It could suggest issues such as compartment syndrome or impaired circulation. Option A is not as concerning since not elevating the extremity may lead to swelling but is not an immediate concern. Option C indicates itching, which is common with casts and not as concerning as potential neurovascular issues. Option D, regarding arthritis in the wrists, is unrelated to the lower extremity issue being screened for.
4. What is the priority nursing action for a laboring client dilated to 6 cm receiving an epidural?
- A. Continuous monitoring of maternal blood pressure.
- B. Frequent auscultation of the fetal heart rate.
- C. Administering an IV fluid bolus of at least 500 cc.
- D. Frequent monitoring of the maternal temperature.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing action for a laboring client dilated to 6 cm receiving an epidural is continuous monitoring of maternal blood pressure. This is crucial because epidural anesthesia can lead to a precipitous drop in blood pressure, which can be dangerous for both the mother and fetus by reducing cardiac output and placental perfusion. While frequent auscultation of the fetal heart rate is important, it is not the priority in this situation. Administering an IV fluid bolus of at least 500 cc may not be necessary if the client's blood pressure is stable. Monitoring the maternal temperature is also essential but takes precedence over blood pressure monitoring.
5. Which of the following is the drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels?
- A. prednisone (Colisone)
- B. allopurinol (Zyloprim)
- C. indomethacin (Indocin)
- D. hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Allopurinol is the correct drug to decrease uric acid levels as it is used to treat gout by reducing uric acid formation. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that decreases inflammation, not uric acid levels. Indomethacin is an analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic agent, not specifically used to reduce uric acid levels. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic primarily used for treating hypertension and edema, not for reducing uric acid levels.
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