NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. Which medication should the nurse withhold if the client's blood pressure is 88/50?
- A. Rosuvastatin (Crestor)
- B. Enalapril (Vasotec)
- C. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
- D. Clopidogrel (Plavix)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Enalapril (Vasotec) is the correct answer. It is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can further lower blood pressure. Given that the client's blood pressure is already low at 88/50, administering Enalapril could exacerbate hypotension and compromise perfusion to vital organs. Rosuvastatin (Crestor), Digoxin (Lanoxin), and Clopidogrel (Plavix) are not contraindicated in the context of low blood pressure and may be administered safely.
2. A nurse is taking the health history of an 85-year-old client. Which of the following physical findings is consistent with normal aging?
- A. Increase in subcutaneous fat.
- B. Diminished cough reflex.
- C. Long-term memory loss.
- D. Myopia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Diminished cough reflex.' Diminished cough reflex is a physical finding consistent with normal aging in older adults, which can increase the risk of aspiration and atelectasis. An increase in subcutaneous fat actually raises the risk of pressure ulcers. While long-term memory is typically preserved in aging unless affected by dementia, short-term memory often declines. Myopia (near-sightedness) is common in younger individuals, but presbyopia (far-sightedness) is more common with aging. Additionally, individuals with myopia may experience an improvement in vision as they age.
3. What advice should be given to a client with stress incontinence?
- A. to consider trying Kegel exercises
- B. to undergo surgery immediately
- C. to avoid all forms of treatment
- D. to ignore the issue as it is not serious
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For stress incontinence, advising the client to consider trying Kegel exercises is appropriate. Kegel exercises involve tightening and releasing the pelvic floor muscles, which can improve stress incontinence by strengthening the muscles that control urination. Choice B suggesting immediate surgery is incorrect as surgery is usually considered after conservative treatments like Kegel exercises have been tried. Choice C advising to avoid all forms of treatment is dangerous and neglectful. Choice D recommending to ignore the issue is inappropriate as it can impact the client's quality of life and may worsen over time without intervention.
4. In the Emergency Department (ED), which client should the nurse see first?
- A. COPD client with a non-productive cough
- B. Diabetic client who has an infected sore on the foot
- C. Client with adrenal insufficiency who feels weak
- D. Client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the Emergency Department, the priority is to assess and manage clients based on the urgency of their conditions. A client with adrenal insufficiency presenting with weakness should be seen first as this could indicate a state of shock, which requires immediate attention to stabilize the client's condition. Weakness in adrenal insufficiency can progress rapidly to a life-threatening adrenal crisis. Choice A, a COPD client with a non-productive cough, may need treatment but is not immediately life-threatening. Choice B, a diabetic client with an infected sore on the foot, requires timely care to prevent complications but can generally wait for evaluation compared to the potential urgency of adrenal insufficiency. Choice D, a client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint, is important but not as time-sensitive as a client potentially in shock.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's serum glucose levels. Which of the following scenarios would indicate abnormal serum glucose values for a 30-year-old male?
- A. 70 mg/dL
- B. 55 mg/dL
- C. 110 mg/dL
- D. 100 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 55 mg/dL. The standard range for serum glucose levels is typically 60-115 mg/dL. A serum glucose level of 55 mg/dL falls below this range, indicating hypoglycemia. Options A, C, and D are within the standard range for serum glucose levels and would not be considered abnormal for a 30-year-old male.
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