NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. What is a chemical reaction between drugs before their administration or absorption known as?
- A. a drug incompatibility
- B. a side effect
- C. an adverse event
- D. an allergic response
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A chemical reaction between drugs before their administration or absorption is termed a drug incompatibility. This phenomenon commonly occurs when drug solutions are mixed before intravenous administration but can also happen with orally administered drugs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because side effects, adverse events, and allergic responses typically occur after the drugs have been administered and absorbed, not before.
2. A nurse, monitoring a client in the fourth stage of labor, checks the client's vital signs every 15 minutes. The nurse notes that the client's pulse rate has increased from 70 to 100 beats/min. On the basis of this finding, which priority action should the nurse take?
- A. Continuing to check the client's vital signs every 15 minutes
- B. Notifying the registered nurse immediately
- C. Checking the client's uterine fundus
- D. Documenting the vital signs in the client's medical record
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During the fourth stage of labor, the woman's vital signs should be assessed every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss, as the heart beats faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. The blood pressure decreases as blood volume diminishes, but this is a later sign of hypovolemia. The most common reason for excessive postpartum bleeding is a uterus that is not firmly contracting and compressing open vessels at the placental site. Therefore, the nurse should check the client's uterine fundus for firmness, height, and positioning. Checking the uterine fundus is the priority action as it helps determine if the client is bleeding excessively. Notifying the registered nurse immediately is not necessary unless the cause of bleeding is unclear and needs further intervention. Continuing to check vital signs without addressing the potential issue will delay necessary intervention. Documenting findings is important, but not the immediate priority when faced with a potential emergency situation like postpartum hemorrhage.
3. After breast reconstruction secondary to breast cancer, the nurse should recognize which of the following expected client outcomes as evidence of a favorable response to nursing interventions related to disturbed body image?
- A. maintaining adequate tissue perfusion
- B. demonstrating behaviors that reduce fears
- C. restored body integrity
- D. remaining free of infection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'restored body integrity.' This outcome is crucial in addressing disturbed body image following breast reconstruction. Restored body integrity reflects a positive perception of one's body after surgery, contributing to improved body image. Choices A, 'maintaining adequate tissue perfusion,' are more related to physiological outcomes and are not directly linked to body image concerns. Choice B, 'demonstrating behaviors that reduce fears,' is associated with anxiety management, not body image. Choice D, 'remaining free of infection,' pertains to preventing infections and does not directly address body image concerns.
4. A pregnant client is scheduled to undergo a transabdominal ultrasound, and the nurse provides information to the client about the procedure. The nurse provides which information?
- A. The procedure typically takes 10 to 30 minutes.
- B. She may need to drink fluids before the test and may not void until the test has been completed.
- C. A probe coated with gel will be inserted into the vagina.
- D. She will be positioned on her back, with her head elevated and turned slightly to one side.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client may need to drink fluids before the test and may not void until the test has been completed. For a transabdominal ultrasound, the woman is positioned on her back with her head elevated and turned slightly to one side to prevent supine hypotension. A wedge or rolled blanket is placed under one hip to help her maintain this position comfortably. If a full bladder is necessary, the woman is instructed to drink several glasses of clear fluid 1 hour before the test and told that she should not void until the test has been completed. Warm mineral oil or transmission gel is spread over her abdomen, and the sonographer slowly moves a transducer over the abdomen to obtain a picture. The procedure typically takes 10 to 30 minutes, making choice A incorrect. Choice C is incorrect because a probe is not inserted into the vagina for a transabdominal ultrasound. Choice D is incorrect because the woman is positioned on her back with her head elevated and turned slightly to one side, not specifically on her back.
5. A client is pregnant for the sixth time. She tells the nurse that she has had three elective first-trimester abortions and that she has a son who was born at 40 weeks' gestation and a daughter who was born at 36 weeks' gestation. In calculating the gravidity and para (parity), the nurse determines that the client is:
- A. Gravida 2, para 6
- B. Gravida 6, para 2
- C. Gravida 3, para 6
- D. Gravida 2, para 2
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The term gravida refers to the number of pregnancies, of any duration, that a woman has had. Parity (para) refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery. Therefore, this client is gravida 6 (pregnant for the sixth time), para 2 (has a son and a daughter). In this case, the correct answer is Gravida 6, para 2. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the information provided. Pregnancy outcomes are often described using the GTPAL acronym: gravida (G), term births (T), preterm births (P), abortions (A), and live births (L). Applying this to the client's history, the GTPAL would be G = 6, T = 1, P = 1, A = 3, L = 2, which further confirms the correct answer.
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