NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The manic client has just interrupted the group session with the counselor for the 4th time, explaining that she already knows this information on 'dealing with others when you are down' and constantly gets up and goes to the front. What should the nurse do at this time?
- A. Engage the client to walk with you to make another pot of coffee
- B. Ask the client to reflect on their behavior to determine if it is appropriate
- C. Ask the group to tell the client how they feel when she interrupts
- D. Instruct the client to perform jumping jacks and count aloud to get rid of some energy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, it is important to redirect the client's energy and focus. Engaging the client in a purposeful activity like making another pot of coffee can help distract them from disruptive behavior and provide an outlet for their excess energy. This choice also helps in maintaining a therapeutic environment by involving the client in a constructive task. Asking the client to reflect on their behavior (Choice B) might not be effective during a manic episode as the client may not be in a state to critically analyze their actions. Asking the group to tell the client how they feel (Choice C) can escalate the situation and may not be appropriate in this context. Instructing the client to perform jumping jacks and count aloud (Choice D) may not address the underlying issue of disruptive behavior and may not be suitable for the current situation.
2. A young female teenager describes a brutal assault and rape to the nurse on duty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Check with the case manager on duty about possible police intervention.
- B. Provide an environment of concern and emotional stabilization.
- C. Clean the patient's wounds with normal saline and gauze.
- D. Refer the patient to a counselor specializing in trauma.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a situation where a patient describes a brutal assault and rape, the first priority should be to provide emotional support and create a safe and supportive environment. This helps the patient feel secure and cared for, which is crucial for their well-being at that moment. Checking with the case manager about police intervention should come after ensuring the patient's immediate emotional needs are addressed. Cleaning the patient's wounds, though important, can be secondary to providing emotional stabilization. Referring the patient to a counselor specializing in trauma is also crucial for long-term support, but the immediate focus should be on providing emotional support and stability.
3. A nurse reviewed the arterial blood gas reading of a 25-year-old male. The nurse should be able to conclude the patient is experiencing which of the following conditions?
- A. metabolic acidosis
- B. respiratory acidosis
- C. metabolic alkalosis
- D. respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is respiratory alkalosis. In respiratory alkalosis, there is an elevated pH and low carbon dioxide levels (PaCO2 < 35 mmHg). In the given arterial blood gas reading, the patient's pH is 7.41 (within normal range), PaCO2 is 29 mmHg (below normal range), indicating respiratory alkalosis. The bicarbonate level is normal (25 mEq/l), ruling out metabolic acidosis or alkalosis. The low PaO2 (54 mmHg) may indicate hypoxemia, but it is not directly related to the acid-base disorder being assessed. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is characterized by low pH and low bicarbonate levels, which are not present in this case. Respiratory acidosis (choice B) is indicated by low pH and high PaCO2 levels, which also do not match the provided data. Metabolic alkalosis (choice C) is defined by high pH and high bicarbonate levels, which are not seen in this scenario.
4. The nurse manager is having a problem on the unit with one staff person having repetitive tardiness and leaving the unit with orders not initiated. Which action by the manager would be best?
- A. Call the staff nurse in and place them on a work improvement plan after a 3-day suspension
- B. Have the other staff gather additional information on the tardy staff member
- C. Call the staff nurse in for an interview to investigate the problem and possible solutions
- D. Assign a mentor to assist the staff member in arriving on time
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse manager would be to call the staff nurse in for an interview to discuss the issues of repetitive tardiness and incomplete tasks. This approach allows the staff member to explain the situation, and together with the manager, develop a plan to address the problems. Choice A is incorrect as it immediately involves suspension without investigation or support. Choice B is not the best course of action as it does not involve direct communication with the staff member in question. Choice D, assigning a mentor to help the staff member, could be beneficial but does not directly address the immediate issues of tardiness and incomplete tasks.
5. The drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels is:
- A. prednisone (Colisone)
- B. allopurinol (Zyloprim)
- C. indomethacin (Indocin)
- D. hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is allopurinol (Zyloprim) as it is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor that decreases uric acid formation. Allopurinol is commonly used to manage gout by lowering uric acid levels. Prednisone is a corticosteroid used to decrease inflammation, not to lower uric acid levels. Indomethacin is an analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic agent, but it is not the drug of choice for lowering uric acid levels. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic used to treat hypertension and edema, not to decrease uric acid levels.
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