NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The manic client has just interrupted the group session with the counselor for the 4th time, explaining that she already knows this information on 'dealing with others when you are down' and constantly gets up and goes to the front. What should the nurse do at this time?
- A. Engage the client to walk with you to make another pot of coffee
- B. Ask the client to reflect on their behavior to determine if it is appropriate
- C. Ask the group to tell the client how they feel when she interrupts
- D. Instruct the client to perform jumping jacks and count aloud to get rid of some energy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, it is important to redirect the client's energy and focus. Engaging the client in a purposeful activity like making another pot of coffee can help distract them from disruptive behavior and provide an outlet for their excess energy. This choice also helps in maintaining a therapeutic environment by involving the client in a constructive task. Asking the client to reflect on their behavior (Choice B) might not be effective during a manic episode as the client may not be in a state to critically analyze their actions. Asking the group to tell the client how they feel (Choice C) can escalate the situation and may not be appropriate in this context. Instructing the client to perform jumping jacks and count aloud (Choice D) may not address the underlying issue of disruptive behavior and may not be suitable for the current situation.
2. When encountering the significant other of a patient with end-stage AIDS crying during her smoke break, what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Allow her to grieve by herself.
- B. Tell her to go ahead and cry, after all, your husband’s pretty bad off.
- C. Tell her you realize how upset she is, but you don’t want to talk about it now.
- D. Approach her, offering tissues, and encourage her to verbalize her feelings
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Approaching the significant other, offering tissues, and encouraging her to verbalize her feelings is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take. Being left alone during the grief process isolates individuals, and they need an outlet for their feelings. By showing empathy and providing support, the nurse can help the significant other cope with her emotions. Choices A, B, and C are inappropriate because they do not offer support or encourage the expression of feelings, which are crucial in such situations.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with decreased cardiac output secondary to heart failure with fluid volume overload. The effects of diminished renal perfusion will have which physiologic response?
- A. Diuresis
- B. Increased fluid retention
- C. Elevated bicarbonate level
- D. Paroxysmal idiopathic narcosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When there is diminished renal perfusion due to decreased cardiac output, the kidneys receive less blood flow. This leads to a decrease in urine output and an increase in fluid retention, as the kidneys are not able to effectively filter and excrete excess fluid. Elevated bicarbonate level and paroxysmal idiopathic narcosis are not typically associated with diminished renal perfusion in heart failure. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Increased fluid retention.'
4. A mother who has never breastfed a child before is having trouble getting the baby to latch on to the breast. The baby has lost 3% of its birth weight within the first 2 days of life. The best statement is:
- A. The baby will eventually take to the breast.
- B. I can prepare a bottle if you want to try that.
- C. A small amount of weight loss in the first few days is normal.
- D. I can arrange for the charge nurse to come and talk to you about breastfeeding.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A small amount of weight loss in the first few days is normal.' It is important to reassure the mother that a small amount of weight loss, such as 5-10% of birth weight, in the first few days of life is considered normal for newborns. This reassurance helps alleviate the mother's concerns. Option A is incorrect because it does not address the concern about weight loss; it focuses more on the baby eventually latching on. Option B is not recommended as the first solution for breastfeeding issues, as introducing a bottle early on may lead to nipple confusion. Option D involves escalating the situation to the charge nurse when it can be addressed by providing appropriate information and support directly, making it less necessary in this scenario where reassurance and education are key.
5. Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
- A. metoclopramide (Reglan)
- B. ondansetron (Zofran)
- C. hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
- D. prochlorperazine (Compazine)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Zofran is a serotonin antagonist commonly used to relieve nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin receptors. Metoclopramide (Reglan) acts on dopamine receptors, hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is an antihistamine, and prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a dopamine antagonist. While these medications can also be used for nausea and vomiting, they do not primarily function as serotonin antagonists like ondansetron.
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