Nursing Elites

1. A client comes to the clinic for assessment of his physical status and guidelines for starting a weight-reduction diet. The client's weight is 216 pounds and his height is 66 inches. The nurse identifies the BMI (body mass index) as:

• A. Within normal limits, so a weight-reduction diet is unnecessary.
• B. Lower than normal, so education about nutrient-dense foods is needed.
• C. Indicating obesity because the BMI is 35.
• D. Indicating overweight status because the BMI is 27.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obesity is defined by a BMI of 30 or more with no co-morbid conditions. Body Mass Index (BMI) is calculated by utilizing a chart or nomogram that plots height and weight. In this case, the client's BMI is calculated as 35, indicating obesity. A BMI of 27 falls within the overweight range, not obesity (which starts at 30). Choices A and B are incorrect because a BMI of 35 indicates obesity, not normal limits or being lower than normal. Therefore, the correct answer is C, indicating obesity based on the BMI calculation.

2. A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP"?nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?

• A. Cushingoid appearance
• B. Alopecia
• C. Temporary or permanent sterility
• D. Pathologic fractures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine can cause alopecia, which is hair loss. This side effect can significantly impact a patient's body image. While Cushingoid appearance (A) can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, temporary or permanent sterility (C) may affect a patient's future fertility but not necessarily alter body image. Pathologic fractures (D) are not common side effects of Hodgkin's disease or its treatment and do not directly contribute to a sense of altered body image in the same way as alopecia does.

3. A 14-year-old boy has been admitted to a mental health unit for observation and treatment. The boy becomes agitated and starts yelling at nursing staff members. What should the nurse's first response be?

• A. Create an atmosphere of seclusion for the boy according to procedures.
• B. Remove other patients from the area for added safety.
• C. Ask the patient, "What is making you mad?"?
• D. Ask the patient, "Why are you behaving this way? Have you thought about what may help you calm down?"?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where a patient is agitated and yelling, the first response should be to create an atmosphere of seclusion for the safety of the patient and others. Seclusion is a standard procedure to help manage aggressive behaviors and prevent harm. Options B, C, and D are not appropriate in this scenario. Removing other patients may not address the immediate safety concern, asking the patient what is making them mad can escalate the situation, and questioning why the patient is behaving that way may not help in managing the current agitation. Therefore, seclusion is the recommended course of action in this scenario to ensure the safety and well-being of all involved.

4. A client had a C5 spinal cord contusion that resulted in quadriplegia. Two days after the injury occurred, the nurse sees his mother crying in the waiting room. The mother asks the nurse whether her son will ever play football again. Which of the following is the best initial response?

• A. "Given time and motivation, your son may regain some function, but I will seek more information from the physician."?
• B. Maintain a calm demeanor and speech pattern while addressing the mother's concerns.
• C. "I'm not sure, but I'll call the physician to discuss this with you promptly."?
• D. "It's not beneficial for your son if you get upset."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best initial response in this situation is to acknowledge the mother's concern, express uncertainty, and offer to obtain more information from the physician. By saying, "I'm not sure, but I'll call the physician to discuss this with you promptly,"? the nurse demonstrates empathy, honesty, and a commitment to providing accurate information. Offering vague reassurance (Choice A) may raise false hopes as outcomes for spinal cord injuries are unpredictable. While maintaining a calm demeanor (Choice B) is important, it does not directly address the mother's immediate need for information. Discouraging the mother from feeling upset (Choice D) is dismissive of her emotions and does not address her question, which is seeking information about her son's prognosis.

5. The physician wants to know if a client is tolerating their total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following laboratory tests is likely to be ordered?

• A. triglyceride level
• B. liver function tests
• C. a glucose tolerance test
• D. a complete blood count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The liver is crucial in processing nutrients and medications received through total parenteral nutrition. Liver function tests assess various enzymes produced by the liver, including prothrombin time/partial prothrombin time, serum glutamic oxaloacetic and pyruvic transaminases, gamma glutamyl transpeptidase, albumin, and alkaline phosphatase. Monitoring these enzymes can help determine if the liver is functioning properly to metabolize the nutrients from TPN. Triglyceride levels (Choice A) primarily evaluate the body's ability to clear fats, not specifically related to TPN tolerance. A glucose tolerance test (Choice C) is used to diagnose diabetes by measuring blood glucose levels after ingesting a glucose-rich solution, not directly related to TPN tolerance. A complete blood count (Choice D) assesses blood components such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but does not provide specific information about TPN tolerance.

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