Nursing Elites

1. A client comes to the clinic for assessment of his physical status and guidelines for starting a weight-reduction diet. The client's weight is 216 pounds and his height is 66 inches. The nurse identifies the BMI (body mass index) as:

• A. Within normal limits, so a weight-reduction diet is unnecessary.
• B. Lower than normal, so education about nutrient-dense foods is needed.
• C. Indicating obesity because the BMI is 35.
• D. Indicating overweight status because the BMI is 27.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obesity is defined by a BMI of 30 or more with no co-morbid conditions. Body Mass Index (BMI) is calculated by utilizing a chart or nomogram that plots height and weight. In this case, the client's BMI is calculated as 35, indicating obesity. A BMI of 27 falls within the overweight range, not obesity (which starts at 30). Choices A and B are incorrect because a BMI of 35 indicates obesity, not normal limits or being lower than normal. Therefore, the correct answer is C, indicating obesity based on the BMI calculation.

2. A nurse is instructing a patient about the warning signs of Digitalis side effects. Which of the following side effects should the nurse tell the patient are sometimes associated with excessive levels of Digitalis?

• A. Seizures
• B. Muscle weakness
• C. Depression
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Muscle weakness.' Palpitations and muscle weakness are commonly associated with excessive levels of Digitalis. Seizures, depression, and anxiety are not typically linked to Digitalis toxicity. Seizures could be more related to other medications or conditions, while depression and anxiety are not commonly reported side effects of Digitalis.

3. The client is preparing to undergo a total hysterectomy for advanced cervical cancer. The client is crying and says that she wants to have more children and is unsure if she should have the procedure. What should the nurse do?

• A. Allow the client to honestly discuss her fears and encourage her to talk more with her physician.
• B. Tell her the good things that she will be able to do without more children and encourage her to make a list of positive things.
• C. Explain to the client that her ovaries can be frozen for egg harvesting at a later time and she can find a surrogate.
• D. Advise the client to put off having the surgery until she is sure that she wants to undergo the procedure and notify the surgeon of the decision.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate action for the nurse is to allow the client to express her fears and concerns openly. By encouraging her to talk more with her physician, the nurse is promoting effective communication and ensuring that the client receives adequate information to make an informed decision. Option A is correct because it acknowledges the client's emotions and empowers her to seek clarification and support from her healthcare provider. Options B and C do not address the client's emotional needs or provide a solution to her concerns regarding fertility. Option D is not appropriate as it does not prioritize the client's emotional well-being and delays necessary medical treatment for advanced cervical cancer.

4. While performing wound care to a donor skin graft site, the nurse notes some scabbing at the edges and a black collection of blood. What is the nurse's next action?

• A. Leave the scabbed area alone and apply extra ointment
• B. Notify the physician
• C. Gently remove the debris and re-dress the wound
• D. Apply skin softening lotion for 3 hours and then re-dress

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the nurse notes scabbing at the edges and a black collection of blood, it indicates the presence of debris that needs to be addressed. Leaving the scabbed area alone and applying extra ointment may not address the underlying issue and could lead to complications. Notifying the physician is important in some cases, but immediate action is required to prevent infection in this situation. Gently removing the debris and re-dressing the wound is the correct course of action to promote healing and prevent complications.

5. A patient has recently been prescribed Zidovudine (Retrovir). The patient has AIDS. Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?

• A. Weakness and SOB
• B. Fever and anemia
• C. Hypertension and SOB
• D. Fever and hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and anemia.' Zidovudine (Retrovir) is known to cause anemia as a side effect due to its impact on the bone marrow. Fever is also a common side effect associated with Zidovudine use. Therefore, the patient should watch out for these specific side effects. Choice A (Weakness and SOB) is incorrect as shortness of breath (SOB) is not a commonly reported side effect of Zidovudine. Choice C (Hypertension and SOB) and Choice D (Fever and hypertension) are unrelated to the known side effects of Zidovudine, making them incorrect.

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