which of the following should not be included in the teaching for clients who take oral iron preparations
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NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Exam Cram

1. Which of the following should not be included in the teaching for clients who take oral iron preparations?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce GI distress. This statement is incorrect because iron should not be mixed with antacids as it can significantly reduce the absorption of iron. Choice B is a good recommendation as taking iron with meals can help reduce gastrointestinal distress. Choice C is also correct as liquid forms of iron should be taken with a straw to prevent the discoloration of tooth enamel. Choice D is incorrect as iron preparations can be taken with juice or water, but not with milk, as calcium in milk can inhibit iron absorption.

2. When preparing a client for platelet pheresis in the blood bank, which information is most significant to obtain during the history assessment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most significant information to gather when a client is scheduled for platelet pheresis is the date of their last platelet donation. Platelet donors can typically have their platelets apheresed as frequently as every 14 days. Knowing the date of the last donation helps ensure the client is eligible for the procedure without risking any adverse effects from frequent donations. Allergies to shellfish may be important for other procedures where anticoagulants containing heparin are used, but it is not directly related to platelet pheresis. The time of the last oral intake is more crucial for procedures requiring sedation or anesthesia. Blood type is significant for blood transfusions but is not the primary concern for platelet pheresis.

3. The client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is asking for help with the repetitive behaviors. The nurse knows that these are a method of dealing with:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Anxiety. Repetitive behaviors in OCD serve as a way for individuals to cope with their anxiety. These behaviors are often performed to reduce the distress caused by obsessive thoughts. Choice A, fearful situations, is incorrect because the behaviors are more related to managing anxiety rather than fear itself. Choice B, depression, is incorrect as OCD behaviors are not typically a method of coping with depression. Choice C, delusions, is also incorrect as these behaviors are not aimed at managing delusional thoughts but rather anxiety in OCD.

4. Melissa Smith came to the Emergency Department in the last week before her estimated date of confinement complaining of headaches, blurred vision, and vomiting. Suspecting PIH, the nurse should best respond to Melissa's complaints with which of the following statements?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can present after 20 weeks gestation. It is characterized by symptoms like edema, hypertension, and proteinuria, which can progress to conditions like pre-eclampsia and eclampsia. The best approach for a client with advanced PIH is rest, and home provides the most suitable environment for it. Hospitalization is not typically necessary for PIH unless there are severe complications. Medication alone is not the primary intervention for PIH; management often involves monitoring, rest, and close medical supervision. Therefore, advising bedrest at home is the most appropriate response to help manage PIH symptoms and prevent further complications, such as pre-eclampsia or eclampsia. The other options, like hospitalization for observation, emphasizing the danger of the signs without providing guidance, or assuming medication as the primary solution, are not in line with the standard management approach for PIH.

5. After a left heart catheterization (LHC), a client complains of severe foot pain on the side of the femoral stick. The nurse notes pulselessness, pallor, and a cold extremity. What should the nurse's next action be?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to notify the physician immediately (stat). The client's symptoms of foot pain, pulselessness, pallor, and cold extremity suggest a potential vascular complication, such as arterial occlusion. Prompt notification of the physician is crucial as this condition requires urgent intervention to restore blood flow and prevent tissue damage. Administering an anticoagulant (Choice A) without physician evaluation could be harmful as the underlying cause needs to be determined first. Warming the room and re-assessing (Choice B) may delay necessary treatment. Increasing IV fluids (Choice C) is unlikely to address the urgent vascular issue indicated by the symptoms described.

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