Nursing Elites

1. The client is scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina. What is the most likely preoperative nursing diagnosis for this client?

• A. Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.
• B. Deficient knowledge (preoperative and postoperative activities) related to lack of information.
• C. Acute pain related to tissue injury and decreased circulation to the eye.
• D. Risk for infection related to the eye injury.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct preoperative nursing diagnosis for a client scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina is 'Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.' A client facing the threat of permanent blindness due to a detached retina is likely to experience anxiety. Addressing this anxiety is crucial before providing education, as severe anxiety can hinder the client's ability to absorb new information. The nurse should offer emotional support, encourage the client to express concerns, and clarify any misconceptions. Acute pain is not a typical symptom of a detached retina, and the risk of infection preoperatively is minimal, making choices C and D less relevant in this scenario.

2. Nursing care for a client undergoing chemotherapy includes assessment for signs of bone marrow depression. Which finding accounts for some of the symptoms related to bone marrow depression?

• A. erythrocytosis
• B. leukocytosis
• C. polycythemia
• D. thrombocytopenia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is an abnormal decrease in the number of platelets, which results in bleeding tendencies. During chemotherapy, bone marrow depression can lead to a reduction in platelet production, causing thrombocytopenia. Erythrocytosis is an abnormal increase in red blood cells, leukocytosis is an increase in white blood cells, and polycythemia is an excess of red blood cells, which is synonymous with erythrocytosis. In the context of chemotherapy, the focus is on the decrease in red and white blood cells, making thrombocytopenia the most relevant finding.

3. Which deficiency in the mother has been primarily associated with neural tube defects in the fetus?

• A. Iron
• B. Folic acid
• C. Vitamin B12
• D. Vitamin E

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Folic acid deficiency in the mother has been primarily associated with neural tube defects in the fetus. Folic acid is crucial for the development of the neural tube in the early stages of pregnancy. Its deficiency can lead to neural tube defects, such as spina bifida or anencephaly. Iron deficiency is not directly related to neural tube defects but can cause other complications in pregnancy. Vitamin B12 is important for neurological function but is not the primary cause of neural tube defects. Vitamin E deficiency is not associated with neural tube defects in the fetus.

4. A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP"?nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?

• A. Cushingoid appearance
• B. Alopecia
• C. Temporary or permanent sterility
• D. Pathologic fractures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine can cause alopecia, which is hair loss. This side effect can significantly impact a patient's body image. While Cushingoid appearance (A) can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, temporary or permanent sterility (C) may affect a patient's future fertility but not necessarily alter body image. Pathologic fractures (D) are not common side effects of Hodgkin's disease or its treatment and do not directly contribute to a sense of altered body image in the same way as alopecia does.

5. What is the best lab test to diagnose disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

• A. platelet count
• B. prothrombin time (PT)
• C. partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• D. D-dimer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best lab test to diagnose disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is the D-dimer test. In DIC, numerous small clots form throughout the body and are rapidly broken down. D-dimer measures a specific fibrin split product and is the most specific test for DIC. Platelet count (Choice A) is decreased in DIC due to consumption, but it is not specific for diagnosing DIC. Prothrombin time (PT - Choice B) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT - Choice C) are both elevated in DIC because clotting factors have been used up, but they are not specific for DIC as they can be elevated in other conditions as well.

Similar Questions