Nursing Elites

1. What is one characteristic of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

• A. The presence of circulating antibodies that neutralize HIV is evidence of exposure to HIV.
• B. HIV replication occurs intracellularly.
• C. HIV integrates its genetic material into the host cell's DNA.
• D. DNA replication is irrelevant to HIV.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. HIV integrates its genetic material into the host cell's DNA. The virus uses the enzyme reverse transcriptase to make a DNA copy of its RNA, which is then inserted into the genetic material of the infected cell. Choice A is incorrect because the presence of antibodies does not indicate immunity to HIV but rather exposure to the virus. Choice B is incorrect as HIV replication occurs intracellularly, inside the host cell. Choice D is irrelevant to the characteristics of HIV.

2. A patient has been admitted to the hospital with an L4-5 HNP diagnosis. After 24 hours, the patient is able to ambulate with assistance and has reduced muscle spasms. Which of the following medications was the most beneficial in changing the patient's mobility status?

• A. Mivacron
• B. Atropine
• C. Bethanechol
• D. Flexeril

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Flexeril. Flexeril is a muscle relaxant commonly used to treat acute muscle pain and spasms. In this scenario, the patient experiencing reduced muscle spasms and improved mobility after taking Flexeril indicates its effectiveness. Choice A, Mivacron, is a neuromuscular blocking agent that is not typically used for muscle spasms or pain relief. Choice B, Atropine, is a medication used to treat certain types of nerve agent and pesticide poisonings, not muscle spasms. Choice C, Bethanechol, is a medication that stimulates bladder contractions and is not indicated for muscle spasms or mobility improvement.

3. A client asks a nurse working in a dental office what type of drug the dentist uses to provide anesthesia during the extraction of the client's wisdom teeth. The dentist uses an anesthetic gas, also known as laughing gas. This agent is:

• A. nitrous oxide.
• B. nitrogen.
• C. nitric oxide.
• D. nitrogen dioxide.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is nitrous oxide. Nitrous oxide is commonly known as laughing gas and is used as an anesthetic gas for procedures like dental extractions. It produces analgesia and mild euphoria without loss of consciousness. Nitrogen is a nonmetallic element found in air, while nitric oxide is a vasodilator produced from L-arginine. Nitrogen dioxide is a poisonous gas found in smog and exhaust fumes and is not used for anesthesia.

4. Is head lag expected to be resolved by 4 months of age? Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate?

• A. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension.
• B. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps.
• C. Drowsiness, lethargy, and fatigue.
• D. Neuropathy and tingling in the extremities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Head lag is a developmental milestone that should be resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate potential developmental delays or muscle weakness. The correct answer, 'Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps,' reflects symptoms that could be associated with developmental delays or underlying health conditions. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension (Choice A) are unlikely to be directly related to head lag. Choices C and D present symptoms that are unrelated to the issue of continued head lag at 6 months of age.

5. A client is admitted for observation following an unrestrained motor vehicle accident. A bystander stated that he lost consciousness for 1-2 minutes. On admission, the client's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 14. The GCS is now 12. The nurse should:

• A. Re-assess in 15 minutes
• B. Stimulate the client with a sternal rub
• C. Administer Tylenol with codeine for a headache
• D. Notify the physician

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score from 14 to 12 indicates a significant neurological change in the client's condition. This change can be indicative of a deterioration in the client's neurological status, possibly due to intracranial bleeding or swelling. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the physician immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Re-assessing in 15 minutes or stimulating the client with a sternal rub are not appropriate actions in this situation as they do not address the underlying cause of the decrease in GCS. Administering Tylenol with codeine for a headache is also not recommended without further assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.

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