NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. The factor that most determines drug distribution is:
- A. vascular perfusion of the tissue or organ.
- B. salt form.
- C. drug interactions.
- D. steady state.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'vascular perfusion of the tissue or organ.' Drug distribution is primarily determined by how well the circulatory system delivers the drug to various tissues and organs. Adequate perfusion ensures proper distribution of the drug throughout the body. While the salt form (choice B), drug interactions (choice C), and steady state (choice D) can influence drug efficacy and metabolism, they are not as crucial as vascular perfusion for the initial distribution of a drug.
2. Which of the following infant behaviors demonstrates the concept of object permanence?
- A. The infant cries when his mother leaves the room.
- B. The infant looks at the floor to find a toy that he was playing with and dropped.
- C. The infant picks up another toy after the one he was playing with rolls under the couch.
- D. The infant participates in a game of patty-cake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Object permanence occurs when the infant learns that something or someone still exists even though they might not be able to see it or them. This typically develops between 9 and 10 months of age. The correct answer, 'The infant looks at the floor to find a toy that he was playing with and dropped,' demonstrates object permanence as the infant understands that the toy still exists even though it is temporarily out of sight. Choices A and C do not directly relate to object permanence as the behaviors described do not necessarily indicate an understanding of objects existing when out of sight. Choice D is incorrect as participating in a game of patty-cake does not involve demonstrating object permanence. Peek-a-boo is a more suitable example of a game that demonstrates object permanence, as the infant continues to look for the hidden face, understanding that it still exists even though temporarily unseen.
3. A mother of a newborn notices a nurse placing liquid in her baby's eyes. Which of the following is an inaccurate statement about the need for eyedrops following birth?
- A. Eyedrops following birth help reduce the risk of eye infection.
- B. Eyedrops are required by law.
- C. Eyedrops will keep the eye moist.
- D. Eyedrops are required by law every 6 hours following birth.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Eyedrops are required by law every 6 hours following birth.' This statement is inaccurate because while laws do require the placement of eyedrops, physicians indicate a specific timeframe for their administration. Choice A is correct because eyedrops following birth do help reduce the risk of eye infection by preventing ophthalmia neonatorum. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that eyedrops are mandated solely by law, without considering medical reasons. Choice C is accurate as eyedrops do help keep the eye moist, preventing dryness and discomfort.
4. Which of the following needs immediate medical attention and emergency intervention? The client who:
- A. complains of sharp pain upon taking a deep breath and excessive coughing.
- B. exhibits yellow, productive sputum, low-grade fever, and crackles.
- C. has a shift of the trachea to the left, with no breath sounds on the right.
- D. has asthma and complains of an inability to catch her breath after exercise.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is considered a medical emergency. The respiratory system is severely compromised, and venous return to the heart is affected. The mediastinal shift is to the unaffected side, indicating a critical situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration. This condition can rapidly progress to a life-threatening state, necessitating prompt medical attention. Choices A, B, and D do not present with life-threatening conditions requiring emergency intervention. Choice A mentions symptoms of pleurisy, which may be painful but not immediately life-threatening. Choice B describes symptoms of bronchitis, which may require medical attention but not of an emergent nature. Choice D reflects a common complaint in asthma but does not suggest an immediate life-threatening situation unless severe respiratory distress is present.
5. High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by:
- A. the inability of the kidneys to excrete the drug metabolites.
- B. rapid cell catabolism.
- C. toxic effects of the prophylactic antibiotics that are given concurrently.
- D. the altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' During chemotherapy, rapid cell destruction occurs, leading to an increase in uric acid levels as a byproduct of cell breakdown. High uric acid levels are primarily a result of the rapid breakdown of cells during chemotherapy, not due to the kidneys' inability to excrete drug metabolites (Choice A). The prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently do not directly cause high uric acid levels (Choice C). The altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs (Choice D) is not a direct cause of elevated uric acid levels; the main mechanism is the rapid cell catabolism that occurs during chemotherapy.
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