Nursing Elites

1. A 70-year-old male who is recovering from a stroke exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect?

• A. The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
• B. The client is unable to distinguish between two tactile stimuli presented simultaneously.
• C. The client is unable to complete a range of vision without turning his head side to side.
• D. The client is unable to carry out cognitive and motor activity at the same time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Unilateral neglect is a condition where a person ignores one side of their body. In this case, the behavior of shaving only one side of the face indicates neglect of the other side. This behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect as the individual is failing to attend to one side of their body. Choices B, C, and D are not associated with unilateral neglect. Choice B refers to tactile agnosia, a condition where a person cannot recognize objects by touch, not related to ignoring one side of the body. Choice C describes a visual field cut, which is a different visual deficit. Choice D relates to dual-task interference, not specific to ignoring one side of the body.

2. What happens if folic acid is administered to treat anemia without determining its underlying cause?

• A. Erythropoiesis is inhibited
• B. Excessive levels of folic acid might accumulate, causing toxicity
• C. The symptoms of pernicious anemia might be masked, delaying treatment
• D. Intrinsic factor is destroyed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When folic acid is given without determining the underlying cause of anemia, the symptoms of pernicious anemia may be masked, potentially delaying the correct treatment. Folic acid alone does not protect against the central nervous system changes seen in pernicious anemia, which are related to Vitamin B12 deficiency. Folic acid and Vitamin B12 are both crucial for cell growth and division. Administering folic acid without knowing the specific type of anemia could lead to a delay in addressing the root cause. Option A is incorrect because folic acid is essential for erythropoiesis, the production of red blood cells. Option B is incorrect as excessive folic acid can cause toxicity, but it is not the primary concern in this context. Option D is incorrect because folic acid treatment for anemia does not directly impact intrinsic factor, which is related to Vitamin B12 absorption.

3. The client is taking Antabuse and should avoid eating foods that may trigger a disulfiram reaction. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid:

• A. Peanuts, dates, raisins
• B. Figs, chocolate, eggplant
• C. Pickles, salad with vinaigrette dressing, beef
• D. Milk, cottage cheese, ice cream

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client taking Antabuse should avoid foods that contain alcohol or vinegar as they can trigger a disulfiram reaction. Pickles and vinaigrette dressing often contain vinegar, which the client should avoid. Beef is safe to consume. Choices A, B, and D do not contain alcohol or vinegar, so they are allowed for the client taking Antabuse.

4. A patient has recently been prescribed Norvasc. Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?

• A. Hypotension and Angina
• B. Hypertension
• C. Lower extremity edema
• D. Peripheral sensory loss and SOB

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension and Angina.' Norvasc is a medication known to cause hypotension (low blood pressure) and angina (chest pain) as side effects. These side effects are important for the patient to watch out for as they can indicate potential issues related to the medication. Choice B ('Hypertension') is incorrect as Norvasc is actually used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C ('Lower extremity edema') is not a common side effect of Norvasc. Choice D ('Peripheral sensory loss and SOB') is not typically associated with Norvasc's side effects.

5. The client in the Emergency Department, who has suffered an ankle sprain, should be taught to:

• A. use cold applications to the sprain during the first 24-48 hours.
• B. expect disability to decrease within the first 24 hours of injury
• C. expect pain to decrease within 3 hours after injury.
• D. begin progressive passive and active range of motion exercises immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client suffers an ankle sprain, the nurse should teach them to use cold applications to the sprain during the first 24-48 hours. Cold applications are believed to produce vasoconstriction and reduce the development of edema. Expecting disability to decrease within the first 24 hours of injury (choice B) is incorrect as disability and pain are anticipated to increase during the first 2-3 hours after injury. Expecting pain to decrease within 3 hours after injury (choice C) is also incorrect as pain and swelling usually increase initially. Beginning progressive passive and active range of motion exercises immediately (choice D) is not recommended; these exercises are usually started 2-5 days after the injury, according to the physician's recommendation. Treatment for a sprain involves support, rest, and alternating cold and heat applications. X-ray pictures are often necessary to rule out any fractures.

Similar Questions