Nursing Elites

1. The client with a history of advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) had conventional gallbladder surgery 2 days previously. Which intervention has priority for preventing respiratory complications?

• A. Incentive spirometry every 1 to 2 hours.
• B. Coughing and deep breathing every 1 to 2 hours.
• C. Getting the client out of bed 4 times daily as ordered by the physician.
• D. Giving oxygen at 4 L/minute according to the physician's order.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority intervention for preventing respiratory complications in a client with advanced COPD who underwent gallbladder surgery is to get the client out of bed 4 times daily. This helps prevent pooling of secretions in the lungs and promotes better lung expansion. Incentive spirometry, coughing, and deep breathing are essential interventions; however, they should be performed more frequently, ideally every 1 to 2 hours, rather than every 4 hours or 4 times daily. Giving oxygen at 4 L/minute could potentially decrease the client's respiratory drive, which is not the priority in this case.

2. A patient has recently been prescribed Zidovudine (Retrovir). The patient has AIDS. Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?

• A. Weakness and SOB
• B. Fever and anemia
• C. Hypertension and SOB
• D. Fever and hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and anemia.' Zidovudine (Retrovir) is known to cause anemia as a side effect due to its impact on the bone marrow. Fever is also a common side effect associated with Zidovudine use. Therefore, the patient should watch out for these specific side effects. Choice A (Weakness and SOB) is incorrect as shortness of breath (SOB) is not a commonly reported side effect of Zidovudine. Choice C (Hypertension and SOB) and Choice D (Fever and hypertension) are unrelated to the known side effects of Zidovudine, making them incorrect.

3. A one-month-old infant in the neonatal intensive care unit is dying. The parents request that the nurse administer an opioid analgesic to their infant, who is crying weakly. The infant's heart rate is 68 beats per minute, and the respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute. The infant is on room air, and the oxygen saturation is 92%. The nurse's response is based on which of the following principles?

• A. Providing analgesia during the last days and hours is an ethically appropriate nursing action.
• B. Withholding the opioid analgesia during the last days and hours is an ethical duty because administering it would represent assisted suicide.
• C. Administering analgesia during the last days and hours is the parents' ethical decision.
• D. Withholding the opioid analgesia is clinically appropriate because it will hasten the infant's death.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: All patients, regardless of age, have the right to die with dignity and be free from pain. In this case, the parents' request for an opioid analgesic to relieve the child's distress aligns with the principles of palliative care and ensuring comfort. Assisted suicide involves a conscious decision by the individual, which is not applicable to a 1-month-old infant. Both the nurse and the parents have an ethical duty to ensure the infant's comfort and well-being. Withholding opioid analgesia solely to hasten death is not appropriate, as providing pain relief is a crucial aspect of end-of-life care. Opioids can be administered to dying patients at any age to alleviate suffering without the intention of hastening death. Therefore, providing analgesia during the last days and hours is an ethically appropriate nursing action. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the decision to administer analgesia in this scenario is based on the best interest and comfort of the infant, not concerns about assisted suicide or hastening death. The ethical consideration is to provide compassionate care and alleviate suffering.

4. Which instruction should be given in a health education class regarding testicular cancer?

• A. All males should perform a testicular exam after a warm bath or shower.
• B. Testicular exams should be performed on a daily basis.
• C. Reddening or darkening of the scrotum is a normal finding.
• D. Testicular exams should be performed after a warm bath or shower.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for testicular cancer education is that testicular exams should be performed after a warm bath or shower as it relaxes the scrotum and makes the exam easier. Testicular exams should be done monthly by all men starting around age 15, not after the age of 30 (Choice A) or on a daily basis (Choice B), which is unnecessary and may lead to unnecessary anxiety. Reddening or darkening of the scrotum is not a normal finding (Choice C) and should be reported to a healthcare provider for further evaluation.

5. Laboratory tests reveal the following electrolyte values for Mr. Smith: Na 135 mEq/L, Ca 8.5 mg/dL, Cl 102 mEq/L, and K 2.0 mEq/L. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the physician because of its potential risk to the client?

• A. Ca
• B. K
• C. Na
• D. Cl

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'K.' Normal serum potassium levels range between 3.5 and 5.5 mEq/L. Mr. Smith's potassium level of 2.0 mEq/L is significantly below the normal range, indicating hypokalemia, which can lead to serious risks such as cardiac arrhythmias. The levels of sodium (Na), calcium (Ca), and chloride (Cl) are within normal ranges, so they do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Therefore, the nurse should report the low potassium level to the physician for prompt intervention.

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