NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The nurse is providing post-operative care to the craniotomy client. Diabetes insipidus is suspected when the client's urine output suddenly increases significantly. Which action takes highest priority?
- A. Continue to monitor urine output
- B. Check a pulse
- C. Check a blood pressure
- D. Check level of consciousness (LOC)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to check a blood pressure. Diabetes insipidus can lead to dehydration and potential hypovolemic shock due to excessive urine output. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to assess the client's circulatory status and detect signs of shock early. Checking the blood pressure will provide essential information on perfusion, which is vital in this situation. Continuing to monitor urine output, checking a pulse, or assessing the level of consciousness are important but not as high a priority as evaluating the blood pressure in a potentially critical situation like suspected diabetes insipidus.
2. Which of the following microorganisms is easily transmitted from client to client on the hands of healthcare workers?
- A. mycobacterium tuberculosis
- B. clostridium tetani
- C. staphylococcus aureus
- D. human immunodeficiency virus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus microorganisms are ubiquitous and easily transmitted by healthcare workers who fail to conduct routine hand washing between clients. Staphylococcus aureus can reside on the skin and be transferred from one client to another if proper hand hygiene is not practiced. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is mainly transmitted through the airborne route, clostridium tetani is usually acquired through exposure to soil or dirt contaminated with tetanus spores, and human immunodeficiency virus is not easily transmitted through casual contact or on the hands of healthcare workers.
3. Jane Love, a 35-year-old gravida III para II at 23 weeks gestation, is seen in the Emergency Department with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Jane reports that she has been feeling tired and has noticed ankle swelling in the evening. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 11.5 g/dL. After evaluating the situation, the nurse determines that Jane is at risk for placenta previa, based on which of the following data?
- A. anemia
- B. edema
- C. painless vaginal bleeding
- D. fatigue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Placenta previa is a disorder where the placenta implants in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. The bleeding results from tearing of the placental villi from the uterine wall as the lower uterine segment contracts and dilates. It can be slight or profuse and can include bright red, painless bleeding. While anemia (choice A) may be a consequence of chronic bleeding from placenta previa, it is not a direct indicator. Edema (choice B) and fatigue (choice D) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in pregnancy but are not specific to placenta previa.
4. What is appropriate care for a client with neutropenia?
- A. Avoiding fresh fruits and vegetables.
- B. Having a private room.
- C. Wearing a mask when out of the room.
- D. Practicing routine hand washing.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client has neutropenia, they have low white blood cell levels, which increases the risk of infections due to a weakened immune system. Wearing a mask when out of the room is crucial to reduce the risk of exposure to respiratory infections. Avoiding fresh fruits and vegetables is also necessary as they may contain harmful pathogens. Having a private room helps minimize exposure to pathogens and ensures that visitors are carefully screened for any signs of illness. Routine hand washing is essential to prevent the spread of infections in the healthcare setting, but the most direct measure to protect the client from potential infections is wearing a mask when out of the room.
5. In the Emergency Department (ED), which client should the nurse see first?
- A. COPD client with a non-productive cough
- B. Diabetic client who has an infected sore on the foot
- C. Client with adrenal insufficiency who feels weak
- D. Client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the Emergency Department, the priority is to assess and manage clients based on the urgency of their conditions. A client with adrenal insufficiency presenting with weakness should be seen first as this could indicate a state of shock, which requires immediate attention to stabilize the client's condition. Weakness in adrenal insufficiency can progress rapidly to a life-threatening adrenal crisis. Choice A, a COPD client with a non-productive cough, may need treatment but is not immediately life-threatening. Choice B, a diabetic client with an infected sore on the foot, requires timely care to prevent complications but can generally wait for evaluation compared to the potential urgency of adrenal insufficiency. Choice D, a client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint, is important but not as time-sensitive as a client potentially in shock.
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