Nursing Elites

1. What is the most effective strategy to assist a client in recognizing and using personal strength?

• A. Encouraging the client's self-identification of strengths.
• B. Promoting the client's active external thinking.
• C. Listening to the client and providing advice as needed.
• D. Assisting the client in maintaining an external locus of control.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to identify their own strengths is empowering and helps build self-awareness and self-confidence. This strategy promotes autonomy and self-efficacy, enabling the client to recognize and utilize their personal strengths effectively. Option B, promoting the client's active external thinking, is vague and not directly related to recognizing personal strengths. Option C, listening to the client and providing advice as needed, focuses more on the nurse's role rather than empowering the client to recognize their strengths independently. Option D, assisting the client in maintaining an external locus of control, goes against the goal of helping the client recognize and utilize their internal strengths.

2. Clomiphene is prescribed for a female client to treat infertility. The nurse is providing information to the client and her spouse about the medication and provides the couple with which information?

• A. If the oral tablets are not successful, the medication will be administered intravenously.
• B. The couple should engage in coitus at least every other day during treatment.
• C. The physician should be notified immediately if breast engorgement occurs.
• D. Multiple births occur in a small percentage of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that multiple births (usually twins) occur in a small percentage (8% - 10%) of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies. The couple should be informed about this potential outcome. Clomiphene is available in 50-mg tablets for oral use; there is no intravenous form of the medication. Breast engorgement is a common side effect of clomiphene that typically resolves after discontinuation of the medication. Ovulation usually happens 5 to 10 days after the last dose of clomiphene, and the couple is advised to engage in coitus at least every other day during this time. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide accurate information regarding clomiphene treatment for infertility.

3. Which instruction should be given in a health education class regarding testicular cancer?

• A. All males should perform a testicular exam after a warm bath or shower.
• B. Testicular exams should be performed on a daily basis.
• C. Reddening or darkening of the scrotum is a normal finding.
• D. Testicular exams should be performed after a warm bath or shower.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for testicular cancer education is that testicular exams should be performed after a warm bath or shower as it relaxes the scrotum and makes the exam easier. Testicular exams should be done monthly by all men starting around age 15, not after the age of 30 (Choice A) or on a daily basis (Choice B), which is unnecessary and may lead to unnecessary anxiety. Reddening or darkening of the scrotum is not a normal finding (Choice C) and should be reported to a healthcare provider for further evaluation.

4. Is head lag expected to be resolved by 4 months of age? Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate?

• A. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension.
• B. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps.
• C. Drowsiness, lethargy, and fatigue.
• D. Neuropathy and tingling in the extremities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Head lag is a developmental milestone that should be resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate potential developmental delays or muscle weakness. The correct answer, 'Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps,' reflects symptoms that could be associated with developmental delays or underlying health conditions. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension (Choice A) are unlikely to be directly related to head lag. Choices C and D present symptoms that are unrelated to the issue of continued head lag at 6 months of age.

5. Acyclovir is the drug of choice for:

• A. HIV
• B. HSV 1 and 2 and VZV
• C. CMV
• D. influenza A viruses

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir (Zovirax) is specifically used to treat infections caused by herpes simplex virus types 1 and 2 (HSV-1 and HSV-2) and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). These include conditions like cold sores, genital herpes, and shingles. Acyclovir works by inhibiting viral DNA replication, leading to the formation of shorter, ineffective DNA chains. It is important to note that acyclovir is not effective against other viruses like HIV, cytomegalovirus (CMV), or influenza A viruses. Therefore, the correct answer is HSV 1 and 2 and VZV.

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