Nursing Elites

1. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:

• A. a maintenance dose.
• B. a loading dose.
• C. a medication with no first-pass effect.
• D. the medication to be given intravenously.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.

2. Why must the nurse be careful not to cut through or disrupt any tears, holes, bloodstains, or dirt present on the clothing of a client who has experienced trauma?

• A. The clothing is the property of another and must be treated with care.
• B. Such care facilitates repair and salvage of the clothing.
• C. The clothing of a trauma victim is potential evidence with legal implications.
• D. Such care decreases trauma to the family members receiving the clothing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Trauma in any client, living or dead, has potential legal and/or forensic implications. Clothing, patterns of stains, and debris are sources of potential evidence and must be preserved. Nurses must be aware of state and local regulations that require mandatory reporting of cases of suspected child and elder abuse, accidental death, and suicide. Each Emergency Department has written policies and procedures to assist nurses and other health care providers in making appropriate reports. Physical evidence is real, tangible, or latent matter that can be visualized, measured, or analyzed. Emergency Department nurses can be called on to collect evidence. Health care facilities have policies governing the collection of forensic evidence. The chain of evidence custody must be followed to ensure the integrity and credibility of the evidence. The chain of evidence custody is the pathway that evidence follows from the time it is collected until it has served its purpose in the legal investigation of an incident. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the crucial aspect of preserving potential evidence with legal implications that may be present on the clothing of a trauma victim.

3. The client diagnosed with end-stage liver disease has completed an advance directive and a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) document and wishes to receive palliative care. Which of the following would correspond to the client's wish for comfort care?

• A. Positioning frequently to prevent skin breakdown and providing pain management and other comfort measures
• B. Carrying out vigorous resuscitation efforts if the client were to stop breathing, but no resuscitation if the heart stops beating
• C. Providing intravenous fluids when the client becomes dehydrated
• D. Providing total parenteral nutrition (TPN) if the client is not able to eat

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Palliative care includes measures to prevent skin breakdown, pain management, and management of other symptoms that cause discomfort, as well as encouraging contact with family and friends. A DNR request precludes all resuscitative efforts related to respiratory or cardiac arrest, making choice B incorrect. Dehydration is a natural part of the dying process, so providing intravenous fluids as in choice C would not align with the client's wish for comfort care. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as in choice D is an invasive procedure meant to prolong life and is not part of palliative care, which focuses on improving quality of life rather than extending it.

4. When discussing possible complications of pregnancy with a client, the nurse should explain that all of the following are symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following is least indicative of UTI during pregnancy?

• A. low back pain
• B. urinary frequency
• C. GI distress
• D. malaise

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary frequency is least indicative of UTI during pregnancy. It is a common minor discomfort of pregnancy caused by pressure of the growing uterus on the bladder. As the uterus rises in the second trimester, there are usually no problems. Frequency may return in the third trimester when the uterus drops into the pelvic cavity. UTI symptoms include low back pain, suprapubic discomfort, and malaise, and are confirmed by laboratory findings. Low back pain, GI distress, and malaise are more closely associated with UTI during pregnancy compared to urinary frequency.

5. Which of the following classifications of medications is used to help decrease tremors for clients with hyperthyroidism?

• A. Steroids
• B. Anticonvulsants
• C. Beta blockers
• D. Iodine compounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Beta blockers. Beta blockers are commonly used to help decrease tremors in clients with hyperthyroidism by blocking the action of adrenaline. This helps to control symptoms such as rapid heart rate, tremors, and anxiety. Steroids (Choice A) are not typically used to treat tremors in hyperthyroidism. Anticonvulsants (Choice B) are primarily used to control seizures and are not the first-line treatment for tremors in hyperthyroidism. Iodine compounds (Choice D) are used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism by reducing the production of thyroid hormones but are not specifically indicated for tremor relief.

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