Nursing Elites

1. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for a client with insomnia?

• A. Ineffective breathing pattern
• B. Disturbed sensory perception
• C. Ineffective coping
• D. Sleep deprivation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: Ineffective breathing pattern.' When a client presents with insomnia, assessing for underlying causes is crucial. Sleep apnea, an airway issue, may be a contributing factor to the client's insomnia, making 'Ineffective breathing pattern' the priority. 'Disturbed sensory perception' focuses on alterations in touch, taste, or vision, which are not directly related to insomnia. 'Ineffective coping' addresses a client's inability to manage stress, which, although important, is not the priority in this case. 'Sleep deprivation' is a consequence of insomnia rather than a primary nursing diagnosis.

2. After a client with an Automated Internal Cardiac Defibrillator (AICD) is successfully defibrillated for Ventricular Fibrillation (VF), what should the nurse do next?

• A. Go to the client to assess for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output.
• B. Call the physician to inform them of the VF episode for medication adjustments.
• C. Call the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD in case of a recurrence.
• D. Document the incident on the code report form and follow up regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a client is successfully defibrillated, the immediate priority is to assess the client for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output, such as altered level of consciousness, chest pain, shortness of breath, or hypotension. This assessment is crucial to determine the effectiveness of the defibrillation and the client's current hemodynamic status. Calling the physician for medication adjustments without assessing the client first could delay essential interventions. Contacting the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD is not the initial action needed after successful defibrillation. Documenting the incident is important but should not take precedence over assessing the client's immediate condition.

3. A newborn baby exhibits a reflex that includes hand opening, abducted, and extended extremities following a jarring motion. Which of the following correctly identifies the reflex?

• A. ATNR reflex
• B. Startle reflex
• C. Grasping reflex
• D. Moro reflex

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is the correct answer. This reflex is characterized by the baby's response to a sudden head movement or loud noise, causing them to open their hands, extend their arms, and then bring them back towards their body. The characteristics mentioned in the question - hand opening, abducted, and extended extremities following a jarring motion - align with the Moro reflex. The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR) involves the head turning to one side with extension of the same side's arm and leg, not the described characteristics. The grasping reflex involves the baby's response to touch on the palm, causing them to grasp an object. While the Moro reflex is often referred to as the startle reflex due to its response to sudden stimuli, the specific characteristics described in the question match the Moro reflex.

4. A client receives a cervical intracavity radium implant as part of her therapy. A common side effect of a cervical implant is:

• A. creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.
• B. stomatitis.
• C. constipation.
• D. xerostomia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.' This side effect persists for 1 to 2 months after the removal of a cervical implant. Diarrhea, not constipation, is usually a side effect of cervical implants. Stomatitis and xerostomia are local side effects of radiation to the mouth, not associated with cervical implants. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

5. When teaching about preventable diseases, the importance of getting the following vaccines should be emphasized:

• A. human papillomavirus, genital herpes, measles.
• B. pneumonia, HIV, mumps.
• C. syphilis, gonorrhea, pneumonia.
• D. polio, pertussis, measles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vaccines are crucial in preventing communicable diseases. Smallpox has been eradicated globally, so its vaccine is no longer used. Polio, pertussis, and measles are diseases that are controlled by routine childhood immunization. While smallpox has been eradicated, these diseases still exist, making it essential for children to be vaccinated against them. Choices A, B, and C include diseases that are not prevented by vaccination or are not related to routine immunizations, making them incorrect choices.

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